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181 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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201 What was the capability of the CMOS called that automated base-level cargo processing actions? |
CMOS Increment I. |
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201 Which three items, when combined, give managers total asset visibility? |
(1) ITV. (2) In-storage visibility. (3) In-repair visibility. |
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201 To whom should the CMOS SA training requests be submitted? |
Unit training manager |
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201 List all nine work areas within CMOS |
(1) SA (2) Planning and packaging. (3) Airlift clearance authority. (4) Surface freight–inbound. (5) Surface freight–outbound. (6) Air freight–inbound. (7) Air freight–outbound. (8) Deployment management. (9) Passenger processing |
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201 Where does data flow after you release a shipment from CMOS? |
Supply, destination, ports of embarkation, military carriers, and other system interfaces. |
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201 Which workstation component allows you to “talk” to CMOS? |
Keyboard |
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202 What capability does the GTN give its customers? |
A seamless near-real-time capability to access and employ transportation and deployment information. |
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202 List 4 users of the GTN for transportation and decision-making purposes. |
(1) National Command Authorities. (2) Theater commanders. (3) USTRANSCOM and its component commands. (4) Other DOD customers. |
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202 Which ocean cargo information system allows you to generate reports vital to export and import procedures? |
WPS World wide port system |
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202 Automates the shipment processing at aerial ports |
GATES |
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202 Automates the booking process between DOD shippers and ocean carriers |
IBS Integrated booking system |
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202 Standard Army MIS This system is the Standard Army management information system (MIS) for transportation. |
DAMMS Department of the Army Movement Management System (Management information system)
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202 Automates base-level cargo processing |
CMOS |
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203 List all functions PowerTrack provides to business-to-business trading partners |
(1) Preaudit invoice payments. (2) Collaboratively resolve invoice exceptions. (3) Make electronic payments. (4) Gain real-time visibility to operations, logistics, and financial information. (5) Integrate data from other systems. |
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203 What document resulted in PowerTrack being adopted by the DOD to pay for transportation services? |
MRM #15 Management Reform Memorandum |
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203 List all types of data critical to the CMOS/PowerTrack interface |
(1) DODAAC or GBLOC. (2) SCAC. (3) TAC or line of accounting with the standard document number. (4) “Bill To” field. |
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203 List all actions available to you within the manual approval function of PowerTrack. |
(1) Approve the payment. (2) Adjust the price, approve the payment, and record the reason for the adjustment in Notes. (3) Place the transaction on hold and request additional information from the carrier. (4) Deny payment and record the reason in Notes |
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204 What publication prescribes policies and procedures, and assigns responsibilities for performingtraffic management functions initiated or sponsored by DOD activities, to include thetransportation and movement of material, and pertains to cargo movements activities? |
DTR Part II |
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204 What publication assigns responsibilities, and provides guidance and procedures on the planning,documentation, funding, and other actions associated with the movement of Air Force cargo insupport of peacetime, exercise, humanitarian, and contingency operations? |
AFI 24–201 |
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205 What is the first step of the cargo movement process? |
A demand or requirement for movement is created |
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205 How can the originating cargo movement’s element see advance information concerning a shipment? |
The SBSS sends advance information of the shipment electronically to the CMOS.
Standard base supply system |
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205 What are the two initial actions in the originating shipment planning process? |
(1) Enter the details of the shipment into the CMOS. (2) Select the mode for transport to the destination |
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205 Why should the originating packing and crating section select the mode of shipment before packaging an item? |
Some modes of transportation may require specialized packaging |
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206 When a shipment originates from a materiel management element on a DD Form 1348–1A, what do we commonly call this type of shipment? |
a MILSTRIP shipment |
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206 What set of procedures provide information that can be used to indicate problems with time frames that govern the movement of materiel from the base supply system throughout the transportation system? |
MILSTEP |
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206 What are the three different documents that can be used as authority for shipping government owned cargo? |
(1) DD Form 1348–1A. (2) DD Form 1149. (3) DD Form 250. |
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206 What system produces the DD Form 1348–1A? |
SBSS. |
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206 If an item has a supply priority designator of 04 and an RDD code of 777, what TP is assigned? |
TP–2. |
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206 What is the first step of the in-checking process? |
Ensure the identity and quantity of the material matches the shipping document. |
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206 What are the two most common material conditions you encounter when in-checking cargo from the materiel management element? |
(1) Serviceable. (2) Unserviceable. |
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206 What code or category identifies shipments that have the most urgent need? |
Code 999 |
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207 When an item is moving by public highway (truck), what publication do you use to classify that item? |
NMFC. National motor freight classification |
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207 When determining the classification for public highway (truck), you find the LTL class rate is 70,TL rate is 30, and MW is 30,000 pounds. What is the breakpoint for this item? |
(TL / LTL) x MW = BP Approximately 12,857 pounds [(30 ÷ 70) × 30,000 = 12,857.143]. |
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208 What are the four modes of transportation? |
(1) Public highway. (2) Rail. (3) Vessel. (4) Air. |
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208 What mode of transportation is the preferred mode in the CONUS for low-priority shipments? |
Public highway |
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208 What is the preferred mode of transportation for high-priority shipments of small packages? |
Air |
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208 What system utilizes DOD-owned vehicles and contracted commercial vehicles? |
DTS Defense transportation service |
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208 Within the DTS, commercial air carriers participate in what contract? |
CRAF |
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209 During the shipment planning process, which document do you use as the shipment planning worksheet when planning a MILSTRIP shipment? |
DD Form 1348–1A |
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209 When annotating the mode code on the shipment planning worksheet, where do you find the list of codes from which to choose? |
DTR Part II, Appendix GG |
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209 What does the packing and crating representative use as a hand receipt for classified cargo before packaging is completed? |
Form 1348–1A or DD Form 1149 |
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209 What TPS has the same requirements as the DD, except the drivers must also undergo a DOD National Agency Check for trustworthiness? |
DN or DDN DD - Dual Driver Protective Service DN- Dual Driver Protective Service with National Agency Check |
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209 What is the minimum TPS required for an item in security risk category 1? |
SM and DN Satellite motor surveillance Dual driver protective service with national agency check |
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209 What type of route order is issued for a CONUS-to-CONUS shipment? |
DRO domestic route order |
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209 How long is a route order effective for a CONUS-to-CONUS shipment? |
90 days. |
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209 Where can you look to see the plain language explanation of all routing instruction notes (RINs)? |
DTR, Part II, Appendix B |
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210 Saw blade binds in the wood |
Kickback |
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210 Causes damage to your lungs |
Dust |
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210 Hidden hazard that can cause long term physical disability |
Noise |
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210 Primary hazard in packaging area |
Rotating blade |
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210 Which hazards are most difficult to control? |
Lifting, tripping, and slipping |
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210 A consolidation of all 91–series AFOSH standards that relate to general operations within the Air Force. |
AFOSH STD 91–50 |
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210 Publication of General industrial operations only |
AFOSH STD 91–66 |
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210 Publication of Manual and powered MHE only |
AFOSH STD 91–46 |
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210 What are the six steps in the (ORM) operational risk process? |
(1) Identify the hazard. (2) Assess the risk. (3) Analyze risk control measures. (4) Make control decisions. (5) Risk control implementation. (6) Supervise and review |
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210 Of the six steps in the ORM process, which steps do you typically deal with? |
(1) Identify the hazard. (5) Risk control implementation. |
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210 How do Air Force leaders use information from accident reports? |
To find causes of accidents and take preventive actions to prevent recurrences |
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210 How are most mishaps associated with transporters categorized? |
As ground mishaps |
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211 What is “preservation”? |
The use of adequate protective measures to prevent deterioration. |
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211 What do you do when the preservation operation has been interrupted? |
Provide temporary protection to exposed parts of the item. |
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211 When you receive an item to be packed and the method of preservation is not specified, what do you do? |
Select a method based on 1. the composition of the item, 2. the nature of its surface, and 3. the level of protection desired. |
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211 What level of protection should be used when you are packaging items you know will be placed in open storage? |
Level A. |
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211 What type of load requires a high degree of protection to prevent puncture, shock, or distortion of the shipping container? |
Type 3, difficult load. |
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211 What basic method of preservation includes using a desiccant? |
Method 50 |
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212 What are the three most commonly used categories of barrier materials? |
(1) MIL–B–121. Provides greaseproof and waterproof protection. (2) MIL–B–131. Provides greaseproof and water-vapor-proof protection. (3) MIL–PRF–81705 Provides ESD and waterproof protection. |
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212 Identify the three layers of heat-sealable barrier material |
(1) Heat-sealable face. (2) Impervious ply. Gives protective properties. (3) Backing ply. |
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212 What layer gives the barrier material its strength? |
The backing ply |
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212 What category of barrier material provides protection against ESD and is waterproof? |
MIL–PRF–81705. |
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212 What minimum amount of dwell time is required to obtain a good seal, regardless of the temperature? |
One-half second |
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212 Generally speaking, what range of pressure should be used during heat-sealing operations to prevent forcing the thermoplastic out? |
Between 40 and 80 psi |
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212 What are the two types of continuous heat sealers? |
(1) Rotary (2) Band |
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213 What is the most frequent and important use of cushioning? |
To absorb energy that results when a container is subjected to impact. |
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213 What term describes the difference between the original thickness of cushioning material and the thickness of the same material after it is released from compression? |
Compression set. |
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213 What term describes the time it takes for cushioning material to return to its original shape after compression? |
Rate of recovery |
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213 What type of cushioning comes in sheets or rolls, and is useful when a high degree of protectionis required in a small space with a minimum of cushioning weight? |
Polystyrene cushioning (PPP–C–850). |
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214 What is the cube for a shipment 48″ long, 24″ wide, and 12″ high? |
(L x W x H) / 1728 8 cube |
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214 What is the center of balance on a vehicle that has an 80-inch wheelbase, 2,200-pound FAW,2,000-pound RAW, and 4,200-pound GVW? |
[(D1 x W1) + (D2 x W2)] / GVW = CB 41.9. |
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214 What is the first step in any packaging operation? |
To examine the item to be packed. |
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214 What are the five item characteristics to consider when selecting a container for packaging? |
(1) Shape. (2) Size and weight. (3) Strength and fragility. (4) Availability of mounting provisions. (5) Disassembly permissible |
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215 What type of containers, when broken down, can be stored lying flat, thus saving space? |
Fiberboard |
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215 What is the primary advantage of wooden boxes over fiberboard containers? |
Strength. |
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215 Which of the four major wood groups is most useful for making box ends and cleats? |
Group III, medium density hardwoods |
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215 What maximum outside dimensions are most desirable for crates? |
30′ x 9′ x 7′ |
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215 Of the three types of wooden crates, which does not require diagonal frame members? |
Plywood-sheathed
1. Lumber-sheathed crate—This type of crate consists of lumber sheeting nailed over the framework. Diagonal frame members are required to brace the sheathing and avoid racking stresses (sideways stress caused when lifting one end). 2. Plywood-sheathed crate—This type of crate is similar to the lumber-sheathed crate, except it has plywood sheathing over the framework. Diagonal frame members are not required on this crate because of plywood’s natural ability to resist racking stresses. 3. Open crate—This crate consists of an open framework of horizontal, vertical, and diagonal members. It is designed primarily as a convenience in handling and storage.
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215 When selecting wood to construct crates, what slope in grain should not be exceeded? |
1″ in 8″ of length |
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216 What are the two categories of reusable containers? |
(1) Category I—long-life containers. (2) Category II—short-life containers. |
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216 What are the three distinct types of reusable containers? |
(1) Fast packs. - the cushioning in any given fast pack never changes. (2) Standard packs. - the size of the cushioning may vary for two different items according to the coded requirements (3) Discreet SPIs. - designed to hold one particular item or a number of different items that are the same size, shape, and weight. |
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216 What is the key to interpreting the SPIs? |
The reference column |
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216 What does the RIC (routing identifier code) on the SPI (special packing instruction) identify? |
The IM (item manager), and depot or ALC (air logistics center) primarily responsible for that item. |
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216 What is the primary purpose of the reusable container program? |
To ensure containers are available at a moment’s notice to send reparable aircraft parts to repair depots for re-manufacture |
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216 What happens if a reusable container is not available for an item that must be returned to a depot for repair? |
The packing and crating section must construct a container |
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217 What three functions do blocking and bracing serve? |
(1) Secure the item. (2) Reinforce the container. (3) Distribute the weight. |
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217 What must you do when you use fiberboard for blocking and bracing? |
Be sure to position it so the weight of the item is exerted in the same direction as the corrugations. |
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217 What are the most common types of nails used in blocking and bracing? |
sinkers and coolers Cement-coated or chemically etched sinkers and coolers |
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217 What are the three types of bolts you most likely use in blocking and bracing operations? |
(1) Step - larger head than carriage bolt. Otherwise, the same. No washer required due to bigger size head. (2) Carriage - smaller than step bolts. Otherwise, the same. (3) Machine. |
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217 What are the three specialty bolts used in blocking and bracing operations? |
(1) J-bolts. (2) U-bolts. (3) Tie-rods. |
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218 What are the two most commonly used banding and strapping materials? |
(1) Flat metal banding. (2) Nylon filament reinforced tape. |
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218 When the length of a fiberboard container is between 30″ and 48″, how many metal girthwisebands should be used? |
3 |
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218 When strapping fiberboard containers with tape, you should completely encircle the container,and then overlap the end of the tape. How many inches of tape overlap should you allow? |
4 |
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218 What is the primary difference between the function of banding wooden boxes and banding fiberboard containers? |
Banding fiberboard container usually closes them; banding on wooden boxes helps to hold the box together after it has been closed with nails. |
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219 In the context of transportation, what is the purpose of marking and labeling? |
To ensure packs move smoothly, without confusion or delay, to their destination. |
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219 What is the most important factor in marking military supplies? |
Preparation of the container surface |
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219 What size should you make the letters when you’re marking packages? |
No less than ¼″ and no more than 1″ high. |
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219 As a general rule, when would you apply a second label to a container? |
When the container is 10 cubic feet or larger. |
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219 What is a DD form 1387? What computer system produces a DD Form 1387? |
The CMOS.
DD Form 1387, Shipping Label |
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219 Where do you place the packing list for a four-piece shipment of classified material? |
Inside the No. 1 container. |
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220 What two components make up polyurethane foam? |
(1) Isocyanate. (2) Polyol blend or resin. |
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220 What is meant by the term “exothermic reaction?” |
Heat is generated during the chemical foaming action that results when you mix isocyanate and a polyolblend. |
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220 What type of foam is most suitable for blocking and bracing? |
Rigid |
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220 How do you protect an item from the foam, regardless of the type of pack? |
Wrap it in polyethylene film. |
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220 What type of load is best suited for a split pack? |
Heavy or bulky items |
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221 What common materials are prime generators of electrostatic voltage? |
Polyethylene, vinyl, foam, polyurethane, synthetic textiles, fiberglass, glass, and rubber. (8 ttl) |
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221 What type of protection should ESD packaging provide? |
Protection against physical damage and to maintain leads in an “as-when-manufactured” condition. |
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221 What statement is marked on unit packs containing ESDS items? |
“Attention Static Sensitive Devices, Handle Only At Static-Safe Work Stations.” |
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222 What type of term is “hazardous substance”? Where are hazardous substances listed? |
EPA ( Environmental Protection Agency) term. In Appendix A to the 172.101 Table in 49 CFR. |
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222 How does 49 CFR define HAZMAT? |
Any material that poses an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported in commerce. |
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222 What types of HAZMAT are identified in 49 CFR as being in Division 2.1? |
Flammable gases. |
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222 What publication is the basis for 49 CFR? |
The United Nations Recommendations in the Transport of Dangerous Goods Model Regulations. |
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222 What publication is applicable to commercial air, but does not carry the force of law? |
IATA. International Air Transportation Association |
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222 What publication do you refer to when preparing and certifying HAZMAT for transportation on an international vessel? |
IMDG Code. International Maritime Organization Dangerous Goods Code |
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222 What publication is used when you’re preparing and certifying HAZMAT for transport bymilitary aircraft? |
AFMAN 24–204(I) |
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222 How often must the HAZMAT preparers undergo training to remain qualified? |
Every 24 months |
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222 When preparing HAZMAT for transportation by DTS vessel, what form is used for certification? |
DD Form 836 or Container Packing Certificate DD Form 2781, or Vehicle Packing Declaration. |
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222 What form is used when you’re inspecting a truck that will carry Division 1.2 explosives? |
DD Form 626 Motor Vehicle Inspection |
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223 Hand-to-hand receipt to control cargo movement |
DD Form 1907 |
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223 Notifies destination of incoming classified shipment |
REPSHIP |
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223 Shipment planning worksheet |
DD Form 1348-1A |
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223 Used for procurement of transportation services |
BL (Bill of Lading) |
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223 Form used for OA |
AF Form 616, fund cite authorization (Obligation Authority) |
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223 What document(s) may be used in place of the DD Form 1907 for AMC shipments? |
Air or truck manifest |
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223 Which categories of materiel require a REPSHIP? |
Secret or confidential; controlled item codes 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, or 9; and explosive classes 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 |
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223 List all instances when you may issue a BL after the service is performed. |
(1) Conversion of a collect CBL. ( commercial bill of lading) (2) Payment of additional charges resulting from the diversion or reconsignment of a linehaul shipment moving on a prepaid CBL. (3) A portion of a multiple unit moving on a single BL is diverted |
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223 An OA is normally valid for how many days? |
30 Obligation Authority |
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223 Which publication establishes policy and procedures intended to eliminate the introduction of agricultural pests in the US or host nations through DOD channels? |
DOD 4500.9-R, Part V. |
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224 List five uses or purposes of the SF 361 |
Transportation discrepancy report
(1) Notify carriers or confirm notification of a problem. (2) Notify a carrier to pick up damaged material and indicate where it is located. (3) Request information from any source to help resolve a discrepancy. (4) Reply to an RFI. (Request for information) (5) Advise action agencies that a previously reported discrepancy has changed or needs to be cancelled. (6) Document problems at a stop-off or transshipment point for action by the consignee. (7) Report all transportation discrepancies not resolved within the time limits set by DOD 4500.9–R. (8) Document discrepancies when services ordered by the government are not performed by the carrier. (9) Adjust inventory and financial records. (10) Support claims against carriers or contractors. |
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224 Under what circumstances is classified material released to a carrier for repairs or salvage? |
None |
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224 Within how many days must you initiate the SF 361 once you determine a shipment is lost? |
7 |
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224 What actions must you take upon discovery of a discrepancy in a classified shipment? |
Notify the nearest transportation officer. |
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224 All action addressees must answer the RFI within how many days when an unclassified/nonprotected shipment is involved? |
7
Request For Information |
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224 You should initiate claims action for an unresolved nonclassified shipment discrepancy valued inexcess of what amount? |
$500 |
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224 What is the unit cost and total cost required to initiate a ROS when hand tools are discovered missing? |
Over a unit cost of $100 or a total cost of $500 Report Of Survey |
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225 Define SDT funding. |
Transportation of material already in the USAF inventory and supply system. It includes port handling,freight, cartage, demurrage, and other charges (i.e., overhead) incurred during shipping of AF logistics materiel to include door-to-door movement worldwide. (Secondary Destination Transportation) |
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225 Define FDT funding |
is the transportation of all materiel from a procurement source (i.e., a manufacturer or DOD industrial activity) outside the DOD supply system to the first point at which the USAF takes possession or ownership. Delivery is made to the first point of use of the materiel or its first DOD location. It includes the charges for freight cartage and demurrage incurred incident to shipment of the material.
First Destination Transportation |
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225 Define TAC |
A four-digit code that identifies the appropriate service, agency, FMS country, or contractor account responsible for funding DTS’ or third-party billing (TPB) transportation charges. The AFMC loads the TAC assignment information into the SBSS system. |
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225 Identify divisions funded by the AFWCF. |
(1) Material support. (2) General support. (3) Medical/dental support. (Air Force Working Capital Fund) is a large revolving fund that combines previously existing commercial or business operations under a single treasury account. |
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225 List examples of SDT/CMA-funded movements. |
(1) Depot or contractor return of serviceable assets to a base. (2) IM-directed redistribution order from base to base.(3) OCONUS unserviceable assets returns to a repair facility. (4) PACER AMMO shipments. (5) Certain segments of lateral support movements Secondary Destination Transportation Centrally Managed Allotment |
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226 How do you determine the TAC for PACER AMMO shipments? |
Based upon the federal stock class and project code shown on the shipping document. |
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226 List two express air contracts eligible under TPB. |
(1) The DOD domestic small package contract. (2) The DOD WWX contract.
(Third Party Billing) WWX - world wide express |
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226 What must be annotated on the AWB to facilitate customs clearance at the port of entry? |
(Air Way Bill) “US military to US military shipment—not for resale.” |
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227 Who tasks MAJCOMs to prepare an OPLAN of how they will react to certain circumstances? |
HQ Air Force |
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227 What code identifies the qualifications of a person or the type of equipment to be deployed? |
UTC Unit Type Code |
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227 What code identifies a specific item or person to be deployed? |
ULN unit line number |
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227 What deployment work center exercises overall control over deployment operations? |
DCC deployment control center |
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227 What office operates the LOGMOD–B computer system? |
The installation logistics plans Log mod b is a system that coordinates people and items that must be deployed. |
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227 What computer system is used by the UDM to input information about deploying personnel? |
LOGMOD–B |
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227 What two systems feed information to the CMOS? |
(1) LOGMOD–B. (2) MANPER–B. |
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227 What two products of the CMOS are printed by CDF and PDF personnel in preparation for deployment operations? |
(1) Cargo manifests. (2) Passenger manifests
(Cargo Deployment Function) (personnel deployment function) |
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227 What system do qualified load planners use to produce aircraft load plans for aircraft during deployments? |
AALPS Automated Air Load Planning System |
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228 Which type of airlift provides continuous air movement from the CONUS to and between different overseas locations? |
Strategic airlift
Theater airlift - provides air movement of personnel, supplies, and equipment on a sustained, selective, or emergency basis to dispersed sites within a theater of operations.
CRAF - provides airlift services during emergencies and contingencies through contractual arrangements with selected US airlines.
Tanker and cargo airlift - provide about eight percent of the wartime cargo airlift capability.
Aeromedical airlift - moves theater casualties
Operational support airlift - supports command and staff movements, aircrew repositioning, medical team moves, and intelligence support.
Tactical airlift often operates from assault strips and austere landing areas. Personnel assigned to this category conduct operations by various delivery modes into all types of terrain. |
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228 Which program is a voluntary civil and military partnership that uses commercial aircraft to support DOD airlift requirements during airlift emergencies? |
CRAF |
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228 Who is the single DOD operating agency responsible for providing DOD sealift service? |
MSC Military Sealift Command |
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229 What information does part 1 of the BSP/ESP identify? |
Resources and capabilities of a location by functional area (Base support plans) / (expeditionary site plans) |
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229 What is the difference between a BSP and ESP? |
BSPs are primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence; ESPs are chiefly associated with locations without a permanent Air Force presence.
(Base support plans) / (expeditionary site plans) |
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229 Who is responsible for establishing the BSPC? |
Installation commander (base support planning committee) |
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229 What are the primary WRM categories? |
Equipment, consumables, vehicles, 463L system support equipment, base systems, subsistence/rations, and Joint use.
(War reserve materiel) |
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230 Who should determine if an installation augmentation program is required? |
Host installation commander or equivalent GSU commander. (geographically separated unit) |
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230 After commanders exhaust their military personnel resource pool, where should they look for additional augmentation? |
Within their organization to see if there are skilled/trained DAF civilian members
Department of the Air Force |
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231 Which type of agreement is an arrangement whereby an activity of the active duty Air Force agrees to provide support to another activity within the Air Force structure? |
Intraservice or host-tenant support agreement. |
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231 What is the difference between an MOA and MOU? |
MOAs usually document the exchange of services and resources; MOUs normally define broad areas of understanding.
memorandum of agreement memorandum of understanding |
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231 What form is used as a cover sheet and attached to the detailed arrangements between bothparties? |
DD Form 1144 Support Agreement, |
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232 List tasks you may perform while providing support to contracting. |
(1) Evaluate packing and crating actions by contractors to ensure they meet contract specifications. (2) Evaluate transportation portions of responses to solicitations. (3) Evaluate contractor’s charges for items shipped to your installation or to others. |
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232 Which publication directs PCOs to obtain advice on transportation-related issues from the transportation officer? |
The FAR.
(procurement contracting officers) Federal Acquisition Regulation |
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233 What budget identifies all the day-to-day costs used within a squadron? |
The O&M budget operation and maintenance |
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233 Supply and transportation personnel within a CLSS are trained to augment which operations?
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Supply and freight packaging operations.
Combat Logistics Support Squadron |
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233 Which function regulates the day-to-day consumption of work hours, supplies, equipment, and services? |
CC
cost center |
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233 What is the first step in preparing a financial plan? |
Review past history of cost expenditures |
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234 Supply and transportation personnel within a CLSS are trained to augment which operations? |
Supply and freight packaging operations Combat Logistics Support Squadron |
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234 Which ABDR team provides commanders the capability to track the movement of critical spare parts? |
ITV/TAV.
(aircraft battle damage repair) in-transit visibility total asset visibility |
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235 Who has jurisdiction over nonmobilized ANG units? |
The governor of the state, commonwealth, or possession (Air National Guard) |
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235 Who commands nonmobilized USAFR units? |
The commander, AFRES |
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235 Where do MAJCOMs look for assistance prior to requesting ARC support? |
Active force members belonging to other MAJCOMs or, if not feasible, ask the AFMPC for assistance
(Air reserve components ) AF Military Personnel Center |
