Skt 5 Vol 2

Front 1

(201) To find a block-by-block explanation of how to document the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350, you would use...

Back 1

Technical Order (TO) 00–20–2 Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection Documentation, Policies and Procedures

Hint 1

a. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110 Basis USAF Supply Manual.
b. Technical Order (TO) 00–20–2 Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection Documentation, Policies and Procedures.
c. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 21–101Aircraft and Equipment maintenance Management.
d. TO 00–5–1AF Technical Order System.

Front 2

(201) Blocks 1 through 14 of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 350 tag are completed by the...

Back 2

originator

Hint 2

a. originator.
b. production scheduler.
c. base supply technician.
d. repair processing center.

Front 3

(202) When is periodic equipment lubrication completed?

Back 3

During scheduled inspection

Hint 3

a. Daily.
b. During supervisory review.
c. During scheduled inspection.
d. During prior-to-use inspection.

Front 4

(202) What section of the Air Force Technical Order Form 244 do you use to document equipment discrepancies?

Back 4

V

Hint 4

a. I.
b. III.
c. IV.
d. V.

Front 5

(202) When documenting equipment discrepancies, what does a Red X denote on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record?

Back 5

Unsafe condition

Hint 5

a. Unsafe condition.
b. Unknown condition.
c. Safe for use condition.
d. Unsatisfactory condition.

Front 6

(202) You need to denote an unsatisfactory, but useable, equipment condition. Which symbol on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record will you use?

Back 6

Red Diagonal (/)

Hint 6

a. Red X.
b. Red Dash (–).
c. Red Diagonal (/).
d. Black, last name initial.

Front 7

(203) To sign an entry on most aircraft forms, the minimum signature that you would give is...

Back 7

first name initial, complete last name, and employee number

Hint 7

a. last name initial, and employee number.
b. complete last name, and employee number.
c. complete first name, last name initial, and employee number.
d. first name initial, complete last name, and employee number.

Front 8

(203) A symbol entered on an aircraft maintenance form reflects the opinion of the...

Back 8

individual making the entry

Hint 8

a. shop supervisor.
b. maintenance officer.
c. squadron commander.
d. individual making the entry.

Front 9

(204) If a discrepancy is carried forward to a new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A, who enters the page number, item number, and date of the new form, and signs in the TRANSFERRED BY block?

Back 9

Crew chief

Hint 9

a. Crew chief.
b. Flight chief.
c. Superintendent.
d. Commander.

Front 10

(204) What Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form is titled Aerospace Vehicle Inspection, Engine Data, Calendar Inspection and Delayed Discrepancy Document?

Back 10

781K

Hint 10

a. 781A.
b. 781H.
c. 781J.
d. 781K.

Front 11

(204) Who is authorized to sign the EXCEPTIONAL RELEASE block of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781H?

Back 11

Senior NCO

Hint 11

a. Crew chief.
b. Shop chief.
c. Senior NCO.
d. Shift supervisor.

Front 12

(205) Which is not one of the five major types of technical orders (TO) authorized for use in the Air Force?

Back 12

Operations and methods technical order

(Its Operations and maintenance, not methods)

Hint 12

a. Operations and methods technical order.

b. Time compliance technical order.

c. Abbreviated technical order.

d. Index type technical order.

Front 13

(205) Which technical order (TO) category includes the inspection workcard and checklist?

Back 13

Abbreviated

Hint 13

a. Operations and maintenance.
b. Time compliance.
c. Abbreviated.
d. Index type.

Front 14

(205) Which type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is signified by a series of red Xs printed around the border of the first page?

Back 14

Immediate

Hint 14

a. Urgent.
b. Routine.
c. Inspection.
d. Immediate.

Front 15

(206) What type of technical order (TO) does the number 1F–16C–06 represent?

Back 15

Work unit code manual

Hint 15

a. List of affected pages.
b. Work unit code manual.
c. Maintenance instructions.
d. Illustrated parts breakdown.

Front 16

(207) In what part of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) would you look if you wanted to find a list of equipment broken down into major assemblies and subassemblies?

Back 16

Group assembly parts list

Hint 16

a. Introduction.
b. Numerical index.
c. Group assembly parts list.
d. Reference designation index.

Front 17

(208) A revision to a publication is normally issued when the changes exceed at least what percentage of the basic technical order (TO)?

Back 17

80 percent

Hint 17

a. 50 percent.
b. 60 percent.
c. 70 percent.
d. 80 percent.

Front 18

(209) What stabilizes an aircraft along the longitudinal axis?

Back 18

Wings

Hint 18

a. Wings.
b. Nacelles.
c. Fuselage.
d. Empennage.

Front 19

(209) What reduces sway or yaw about the vertical axis of an aircraft?

Back 19

Vertical stabilizer

Hint 19

a. Wings.
b. Fuselage.
c. Vertical stabilizer.
d. Horizontal stabilizer.

Front 20

(209) When the cockpit control is moved to the right, the right...

Back 20

aileron moves up and the left aileron moves down

Hint 20

a. and left ailerons move up.
b. and left ailerons move down.
c. aileron moves up and the left aileron moves down.
d. aileron moves down and the left aileron moves up.

Front 21

(209) Which of these is an auxiliary flight control?

Back 21

Flap

Hint 21

a. Flap.
b. Rudder.
c. Elevator.
d. Stabilizer.

Front 22

(210) When performing a visual inspection on nicked plastic assemblies, what are you looking for?

Back 22

White powdered glass is often seen in a chipped area

Hint 22

a. Nicked area is near the edge of the plastic and spreading inward.
b. White powdered glass is often seen in a chipped area.
c. Visibility through the nicked area is slight.
d. Chipped area has a smooth appearance.

Front 23

(210) When inspecting for distortions besides excellent lighting what else do you use?

Back 23

a grid made up of horizontal and vertical lines

Hint 23

a. A grid made up of horizontal and vertical lines.
b. Viewing lines through panel at a distance of at least 40ft away.
c. A dark background placed outside of the panel while viewing from inside.
d. A dark grid made up of parallel curved lines of varying lengths and thicknesses.

Front 24

(211) When classifying damage to a composite structure, a puncture of a fiberglass panel that extends through one facing is which classification?

Back 24

Class II

Hint 24

a. Repairable.
b. Class III.
c. Class II.
d. Class I.

Front 25

(212) When preparing a cutout for an “open area,” you should remove all damage and...

Back 25

relieve stress concentrations

Hint 25

a. stop-drill all cracks.
b. relieve stress concentrations.
c. ensure the cutout is centered over a substructural member.
d. anneal the cutout areas so the area is not work-hardened during the cutout operation.

Front 26

(212) One way to prevent substructure damage when making a skin cutout is to...

Back 26

use a scrap piece of metal between the skin and substructural member

Hint 26

a. use a dubbed drill bit.
b. remove the substructure.
c. use a rotary file with a flat bottom.
d. use a scrap piece of metal between the skin and substructural member.

Front 27

(212) You must consider the location of any existing fasteners near a damaged area when determining the...

Back 27

overall size of the cutout

Hint 27

a. overall size of the cutout.
b. material thickness of the repair parts.
c. number of fasteners required for the repair.
d. classification of the repair to be accomplished.

Front 28

(212) An angle drill is used to remove damage when...

Back 28

the damage is in a limited space

Hint 28

a. the damage is in a limited space.
b. the skin and substructural damage cutout are the same.
c. the skin and substructural damage cutout are not the same.
d. only the skin is damaged and the substructural member is intact.

Front 29

(213) What size drill bit would you use to stop drill a crack in a .032 inch skin?

Back 29

0.125

(material thicker than 0.040 inch requires 0.25 inch drill bit)

Hint 29

a. 0.025.
b. 0.125.
c. 0.225.
d. 0.325.

Front 30

(214) Rivet spacing refers to the...

Back 30

distance between the centers of neighboring rivets in the same row

Hint 30

a. perpendicular distance between the rivet rows.
b. distance between the rows in a two-row layout.
c. distance from the center of the first rivet to the edge of the sheet.
d. distance between the centers of neighboring rivets in the same row.

Front 31

(214) Before you develop a rivet layout for a circular flush repair, you must first establish the...

Back 31

center point of the cutout area

Hint 31

a. center point of the cutout area.
b. head style of the rivets to be used.
c. rivet spacing required on the filler plate.
d. direction of the stress concentrations within the part being repaired.

Front 32

(215) When fabricating a filler plate for a flush skin repair in an open area, you determine the overall dimensions of the filler by...

Back 32

using the cutout area as a template

Hint 32

a. using the cutout area as a template.
b. using the dimensions of a previously installed flush repair.
c. measuring the damaged area before making the skin cutout.
d. multiplying the length of the damage by the width of the damage, and adding the edge distance requirements.

Front 33

(215) In which situation is a fastener layout more than likely done on the patch instead of the repair part?

Back 33

Blind area with no existing fasteners

Hint 33

a. Open area with existing fasteners.
b. Blind area with existing fasteners.
c. Open area with no existing fasteners.
d. Blind area with no existing fasteners.

Front 34

(215) The key measurements for fabricating a filler angle for a stringer splice repair are the...

Back 34

width of flanges and bend radii

Hint 34

a. length and width of the cutout.
b. width of flanges and bend radii.
c. width of flanges and length of cutout.
d. size of cutout and thickness of the material composition.

Front 35

(215) The fastener holes for the repair parts used in a combination repair are drilled to the required diameters...

Back 35

before you make the installation

Hint 35

a. before you make the installation.
b. during the fabrication procedures.
c. before you begin the fabrication procedures.
d. after you’ve completed the countersinking or dimpling.

Front 36

(215) What percentage of the diameter of the hole being cold worked shall the minimum thickness of sheet or stack-up be...

Back 36

20%

Hint 36

a. a. 10%.
b. b. 15%.
c. c. 20%.
d. d. 25%.

Front 37

(216) As it applies to the installation of repair parts, what is a primer and when is it applied?

Back 37

Corrosion preventative; applied before the installation of repair parts

Hint 37

a. Cleaning solvent; applied before painting.
b. Precleaning agent; applied before using an approved solvent.
c. Corrosion preventative; applied before the installation of repair parts.
d. Bonding agent; applied on repair parts to provide a base for a corrosion preventative.

Front 38

(216) Before applying an aerodynamic smoothing compound to repair seams,

Back 38

clean the area with an approved solvent

Hint 38

a. smooth the edges with sandpaper.
b. clean the area with distilled water.
c. smooth the edges with a rotary file.
d. clean the area with an approved solvent.

Front 39

(216) The method you use to remove excess aerodynamic smoothing compound from seams depends on the...

Back 39

hardness of the compound surface

Hint 39

a. hardness of the material sealed.
b. hardness of the compound surface.
c. amount of heat used to cure the compound.
d. temperature and relative humidity at the time the compound was applied.

Front 40

(217) What type of seal is produced by sandwiching sealant between mating surfaces?

Back 40

Faying

Hint 40

a. Fillet.
b. Faying.
c. Contact.
d. Injection.

Front 41

(217) When preparing to mix a two-part sealant, you mix the sealant in accordance with the...

Back 41

manufacturer’s instructions

Hint 41

a. job guide.
b. technical order.
c. shop operating instructions.
d. manufacturer’s instructions.

Front 42

(218) To clean dirt and grease from a surface to be sealed, you use...

Back 42

an approved solvent/cleaner

Hint 42

a. soapy water.
b. alkaline cleaner.
c. an approved solvent/cleaner.
d. a high pressure water blaster.

Front 43

(218) When the technical order (TO) calls for a permanent type of seal between two parts, you install a...

Back 43

faying surface seal

Hint 43

a. fillet seal.
b. injection seal.
c. faying surface seal.
d. close tolerance seal.

Front 44

(218) Sealants that have a long work-life normally have a...

Back 44

long curing period

Hint 44

a. long curing period.
b. short curing period.
c. curing temperature above 120° F.
d. 3-percent addition of deionized water.

Front 45

(218) What do you use to fabricate a sealant removal tool?

Back 45

Plastic

Hint 45

a. Brass.
b. Plastic.
c. Aluminum.
d. Stainless steel.

Front 46

(219) An atom that has gained or lost electrons and has acquired an electrical charge is called...

Back 46

an ion

Hint 46

a. an ion.
b. a proton.
c. a neutron.
d. an electron.

Front 47

(219) Corrosion in an electrochemical cell always starts at the...

Back 47

surface of the metal

Hint 47

a. cathodic surface.
b. surface of the metal.
c. weakest point in the metal path.
d. point where the electrolyte contacts the anode.

Front 48

(220) What is the rate of corrosion when the anode is smaller, in relation to the cathode in the electrochemical corrosion cell?

Back 48

Rapid and severe

Hint 48

a. Slow and severe.
b. Rapid and severe.
c. Slow and superficial.
d. Rapid and superficial.

Front 49

(220) Metals such as stainless steel and titanium that corrode slowly are referred to as...

Back 49

cathodic

Hint 49

a. anodic.
b. cathodic.
c. resistant.
d. inhibited.

Front 50

(220) Some metals have the ability to become electrochemically inactive or passive under certain conditions because of the formation of...

Back 50

oxide films

Hint 50

a. oxide films.
b. noble films.
c. inhibiter films.
d. chromate films.

Front 51

(221) On a polished surface, uniform surface corrosion is first seen as...

Back 51

a general dulling of the surface

Hint 51

a. a general dulling of the surface.
b. a discoloration of the paint.
c. white powdery deposits.
d. small pits or holes.

Front 52

(221) Pitting corrosion of aluminum or magnesium is first noticed as...

Back 52

white powdery deposits

Hint 52

a. small pits or holes.
b. white powdery deposits.
c. a discoloration of the paint.
d. a general dulling of the surface.

Front 53

(222) When performing a corrosion inspection, which tool would you use to dislodge blisters or bubbles?

Back 53

Plastic scraper

Hint 53

a. Knife.
b. Straight edge.
c. Metal scraper.
d. Plastic scraper.

Front 54

(222) Which formula would you use to determine maximum corrosion pit depth when using a depth gauge?

Back 54

(A + B) ÷ 2 – C = Depth

Hint 54

a. (A – B) ÷ 2 – C = Depth.
b. (A – B) ÷ 3 – C = Depth.
c. (A + B) ÷ 2 – C = Depth.
d. (A + B) ÷ 3 – C = Depth.

Front 55

(223) When inspecting exhaust paths for corrosion, what areas should be inspected because they cannot be reached with normal cleaning?

Back 55

Seams and fairings

Hint 55

a. Spotwelds.
b. Bilge areas.
c. Seams and fairings.
d. Water entrapment areas.

Front 56

(223) What is the first step in a general corrosion inspection?

Back 56

Ensure the area has been thoroughly cleaned

Hint 56

a. Dislodge paint irregularities by scraping.
b. Determine the extent/degree of corrosion.
c. Ensure the area has been thoroughly cleaned.
d. Examine the area with a 10X magnifying glass.

Front 57

(223) Corrosion that appears as blistering, exfoliation, and scaling or flaking is classified as...

Back 57

Severe

Hint 57

a. light

b. severe

c. moderate

d. superficial

Front 58

(223) Prior to corrosion removal, what must be determined?

Back 58

Allowable damage removal limits

Hint 58

a. Type of removal tooling.
b. Type of removal method.
c. Type of paint to be used to recoat surface.
d. Allowable damage removal limits.

Front 59

(224) Material compatibility refers to using a medium that will...

Back 59

not cause additional corrosion

Hint 59

a. not cause additional corrosion.
b. slow down the corrosion rate.
c. speed up the corrosion rate.
d. cause additional corrosion.

Front 60

(224) Which motion should you use when removing corrosion with a hand held wire brush?

Back 60

Linear

Hint 60

a. Linear.
b. Circular.
c. Oscillating.
d. Cross hatch.

Front 61

(224) When removing corrosion with a pneumatic sander, how do you keep the sander from digging into the metal?

Back 61

Start the sander before it touches the metal

Hint 61

a. Move the sander slowly.
b. Only use light pressure.
c. Start the sander before it touches the metal.
d. Only allow a portion of the sanding disc to contact the surface.

Front 62

(224) After all visible corrosion is removed, how many additional mils should be removed?

Back 62

2 (.0020 inch)

Hint 62

a. 1 (.0010 inch).
b. 2 (.0020 inch).
c. 3 (.0030 inch).
d. 4 (.0040 inch).

Front 63

(224) What is the last step in the general corrosion removal process?

Back 63

Treat the surface and apply protective coatings

Hint 63

a. Blend out edges of damaged area.
b. Re-evaluate using fluorescent penetrant.
c. Treat the surface and apply protective coatings.
d. Ensure allowable damage limits have not been exceeded.

Front 64

(225) The paint edges around the chemically stripped areas are feathered in order to...

Back 64

ensure a smooth, overlapping transition between the old and new paint surfaces

Hint 64

a. ensure a smooth, overlapping transition between the old and new paint surfaces.
b. allow for accurate measurements corrosion removal areas.
c. ensure good surface contact for chemical strippers.
d. allow for easier access to the bare metal areas.

Front 65

(226) The two categories that corrosion preventive compounds (CPC) are separated into include...

Back 65

water displacing and non-water displacing

Hint 65

a. light and heavy.
b. clear and translucent.
c. viscous and nonviscous.
d. water displacing and non-water displacing.

Front 66

(226) Low viscosity corrosion preventive compounds (CPC) are best suited for what type of application?

Back 66

Spraying

Hint 66

a. Dipping.
b. Spraying.
c. Brushing.
d. Immersion.

Front 67

(227) Which is not a reason for immediate cleaning?

Back 67

Poor Aerodynamic smoothness

Hint 67

a. Salt deposits.
b. Fungus Growth.
c. Spilled electrolytes.
d. Poor Aerodynamic smoothness.

Front 68

(227) When would an aircraft that took off four times over salt water require a clear water rinse?

Back 68

After the last flight of day

Front 69

(227) What conditions do you consider when you are choosing a cleaning method?

Back 69

Size of the area and cleaning compound being used

Hint 69

a. Size of the area and type of soil.
b. Type of metal and surface condition.
c. Type of metal and degree of cleanliness required.
d. Size of the area and cleaning compound being used.

Front 70

(228) Standards for paint such as color, drying time, and adhesion are stipulated by the

Back 70

Military specification

Hint 70

a. aircraft specific TO.
b. general aircraft TO.
c. Military specification.
d. Qualified products list (QPL).

Front 71

(229) Solid waste can be any material that is essentially waste-like, abandoned, or...

Back 71

recycled

Hint 71

a. frozen.
b. recycled.
c. excluded.
d. nonliquid.

Front 72

(229) At a minimum, material data safety sheets (MSDS) are made available to...

Back 72

everyone

Hint 72

a. everyone.
b. shop chiefs.
c. shift supervisors.
d. immediate supervisors.

Front 73

(229) The four characteristics of hazardous waste are ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity, and...

Back 73

toxicity

Hint 73

a. toxicity.
b. volatility.
c. flammability.
d. accessibility.

Front 74

(230) An individual item of supply that has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life is considered Type...

Back 74

I

Hint 74

a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

Front 75

(230) An individual item of supply that has an extendable shelf-life is considered Type...

Back 75

II

Hint 75

a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

Front 76

(231) 90-day accumulation sites for hazardous waste (HW) containers should be able to contain the volume of...

Back 76

the largest container or 10% of the volume of all containers, whichever is greater

Hint 76

a. 50% of all containers.
b. the largest container only.
c. the largest container and 10% of the volume of all containers.
d. the largest container or 10% of the volume of all containers, whichever is greater.

Front 77

(231) How often should hazardous waste (HW) containers be inspected for release problems?

Back 77

Weekly

Hint 77

a. Weekly.
b. Monthly.
c. Biweekly.
d. Bimonthly.

Front 78

(232) What percentage of low observable coatings must be separated as classified or unclassified prior to disposal?

Back 78

100%

Hint 78

a. a. 25%.
b. b. 50%.
c. c. 75%.
d. d. 100%.

Front 79

(233) The type of chemical remover to be used depends on the...

Back 79

type of organic finish system to be removed

Hint 79

a. barometric pressure during removal procedures.
b. type of organic finish system to be removed.
c. color of the finish system to be removed.
d. humidity during removal procedures.

Front 80

(233) When do you mix chemical paint remover?

Back 80

Immediately before use

Hint 80

a. 1 hour before use.
b. 2 hours before use.
c. 30 minutes before use.
d. Immediately before use.

Front 81

(234) What special requirement(s) must be met when mechanically removing coatings on steel and titanium alloy?

Back 81

Part must be grounded and area must be well ventilated

Hint 81

a. Forced air respirator must be worn and part must be grounded.
b. Part must be grounded and area must be well ventilated.
c. Area must be well ventilated only.
d. Part must be grounded only.

Front 82

(235) When using the plastic media blasting (PMB) cabinet blaster, check the media level...

Back 82

prior to use

Hint 82

a. prior to use.
b. during use.
c. immediately after use.
d. 5–10 minutes after use allowing the media settle.

Front 83

(235) What is the first step when preparing a part for blasting in the plastic media blasting booth?

Back 83

Thoroughly clean the substrate

Hint 83

a. Mask areas you don’t want blasted.
b. Thoroughly clean the substrate.
c. Decide what media to use.
d. Remove all small parts.

Front 84

(236) The purpose of adding pigment to paint is to develop...

Back 84

color

Hint 84

a. color.
b. adhesion.
c. flexibility.
d. toughness.

Front 85

(236) After checking the shelf life of your coating material you should...

Back 85

allow the material to reach room temperature

Hint 85

a. remove the lid and inspect the catalyst.
b. allow the material to reach room temperature.
c. mix the material per manufacturer’s instructions.
d. place the material in a paint shaker and agitate for 10 minutes.

Front 86

(236) What will happen if two-component materials are not thoroughly mixed with each other and in the exact specified proportions?

Back 86

Curing and adhesion problems will occur

Hint 86

a. Nothing.
b. Resin will curdle.
c. Catalyst will become suspended.
d. Curing and adhesion problems will occur.

Front 87

(236) When using a #2 Zahn cup, how is the viscosity expressed?

Back 87

Seconds through the cup

Hint 87

a. Minutes through the container.
b. Seconds through the container.
c. Minutes through the cup.
d. Seconds through the cup.

Front 88

(237) What type of spray gun is made with an external airtight container?

Back 88

Pressure-feed

Hint 88

a. Internal-mix.
b. External-mix.
c. Pressure-feed.
d. Suction-feed.

Front 89

(237) The distance that you hold the spray gun nozzle from the surface depends upon the...

Back 89

desired width of the spray pattern and type of gun used

Hint 89

a. temperature and the type of gun used.
b. air pressure used and the type of paint.
c. temperature and the consistency of the paint.
d. desired width of the spray pattern and type of gun used.

Front 90

(237) When using parallel strokes with a spray gun, the spray pattern should...

Back 90

overlap 50 percent of the previous stroke

Hint 90

a. not overlap the previous stroke.
b. overlap 25 percent of the previous stroke.
c. overlap 50 percent of the previous stroke.
d. overlap 75 percent of the previous stroke.

Front 91

(237) When should you dismantle a spray gun?

Back 91

If a proper spray pattern cannot be produced

Hint 91

a. Never, only a factory representative is authorized to dismantle equipment.
b. If a proper spray pattern cannot be produced.
c. Every 30 days.
d. After each use.

Front 92

(238) What effect does low humidity have on moisture curing coatings?

Back 92

It slows the cure process

Hint 92

a. Nothing.
b. It stops the cure process.
c. It slows the cure process.
d. It accelerate the cure process.

Front 93

(238) What is the coarsest grit of abrasive paper that should be used to scuff-sand an already coated aircraft?

Back 93

120 grit

Hint 93

a. 400 grit.
b. 200 grit.
c. 180 grit.
d. 120 grit.

Front 94

(238) When painting, what must you do just prior to primer or topcoating?

Back 94

Perform a solvent wipe down

Hint 94

a. Nothing, surface is ready for coating.
b. Blow off area with compressed air.
c. Perform a solvent wipe down.
d. Rinse with fresh water.

Front 95

(238) What is the minimum number of readings you need to take when using a wet film gauge to measure coating thicknesses?

Back 95

6

Hint 95

a. 4.
b. 5.
c. 6.
d. 7

Front 96

(239) What is the most common cause of coating failure?

Back 96

Inadequate surface preparation

Hint 96

a. Unusual climatic conditions.
b. Inadequate surface preparation.
c. Using faulty finishing materials.
d. Incorrect techniques during application.

Front 97

(239) The probable cause of a protective coating spray pattern with a split spray is...

Back 97

air and fluid feeds not properly balanced

Hint 97

a. a loose fluid nozzle.
b. excessively high cup pressure.
c. incorrect viscosity of the paint.
d. air and fluid feeds not properly balanced.

Front 98

(239) What is a common cause of streaking when spray painting?

Back 98

Dirty air cap

Hint 98

a. Dirty air cap.
b. Misaligned fluid needle.
c. Dirt seated in fluid tube.
d. Excessive fluid adjustment setting.

Front 99

(240) On fixed-wing aircraft, the national star insignia is located on the...

Back 99

upper left and lower right of wings, and both sides of the fuselage

Hint 99

a. upper left and lower right of wings, and left side of the fuselage.
b. lower left and lower right of wings, and right side of the fuselage.
c. upper left and lower right of wings, and both sides of the fuselage.
d. lower left and upper right of wings, and both sides of the fuselage.

Front 100

(240) What is the next step after the plotter cuts your vinyl?

Back 100

The undesirable material must be weeded

Hint 100

a. The decal is applied to the equipment.
b. The desirable material must be weeded.
c. Transfer tape is applied to the equipment.
d. The undesirable material must be weeded.