Cdc 2A354C Volume 3

Front 1

What is the primary radio used on the block 40 F-16 aircraft

Back 1

An/Arc-164, Hq2 phase 2 radio (R/T 1505)

Front 2

What frequency range has the DOD set aside for the UHF range for the Military?

Back 2

225MHz-399.975MHz

Front 3

How many channels are available on the AN/ARC 164 HQ 2 radio set?

Back 3

7,000

Front 4

What is the transmitter output of the AN/ARC-164 HQ II UHF radio set?

Back 4

10 Watts

Front 5

What's the channel spacing of the AN/ARC-164 HQ II radio set

Back 5

0.025 MHz

Front 6

What are the operating modes of the AN/ARC-164 HQ II radio set?

Back 6

OFF, MAIN, BOTH, ADF, ANTI-JAM

Front 7

In Uhf radios that contain Have Quick capabilities, what process prevents enemies from jamming/monitoring UHF transmissions?

Back 7

Quicking or Frequency Hopping

Front 8

Does HQ jam frequencies? Explain.

Back 8

No it prevents enimies from jamming, monitoring.

Front 9

What is used to synchronize hopping between HQ capable UHF radios?

Back 9

TOD signal

Front 10

What are the ways the radio can receive the TOD?

Back 10

By individual radio, GPS via the GPS receiver, received from Ground/ Tower/ Radar approach control, and from another radio using the same WOD.

Front 11

What are the two modes of HQ and what are the nets under each?

Back 11

HQ-TNG: TNET and FMT

HQ-CBT: AB, NATO, NNATO

Front 12

On UHF radios equipped with HQ II, what channel would you use for the date loading operation?

Back 12

Channel 1

Front 13

On UHF radios equipped with HQ II, what channel is used for MWOD date loading?

Back 13

Channel 14

Front 14

What frequencies can be used for channel 20 command codes?

Back 14

220, 220.025, 220.050, and 220.

075

Front 15

How many UHF antennas does the F-16 aircraft have?

Back 15

2

Front 16

What LRUs are in the UHF system?

Back 16

UHF R/T, IFF/UHF antennas, ANTI ICE and ANT SEL panels, antenna selector, GPS TOD relay, Associated controls and systems.

Front 17

Where is the AN/ARC-164 R/T located on the F-16 aircraft?

Back 17

Left console area of the cockpit

Front 18

What sub-components make up the UHF radio?

Back 18

Main receiver, Guard receiver, Transmitter, Synthesizer, Switching Unit

Front 19

How many re-programmable preset channels are on the UHF radio?

Back 19

20

Front 20

The guard receiver is permanently tuned to what frequency?

Back 20

243.00MHz

Front 21

Can the UHF radio be controlled through the UFC?

Back 21

Yes

Front 22

What are the positions of the function switch?

Back 22

OFF, MAIN, BOTH, and ADF

Front 23

What position of the A-3-2 switch is used to place the radio in the HQ mode?

Back 23

A-Position

Front 24

What will happen if the A mode of the A-3-2 switch is selected without proper priming?

Back 24

A warning noise is heard in the headset

Front 25

The test display button serves what two purposes?

Back 25

Alone it tests the display function by lighting all segments of the LED display. Used with T/Tone it provides self initiation of the TOD clock.

Front 26

What's the purpose of the frequency selector switches (MHz Switches)?

Back 26

Allow you to select MHz frequencies in terms of tens, units, and tenths. The 4th of the switches Hundredths and Thousandths in increments of 00, 25, 50, 75.

Front 27

What's the primary function of the frequency/status display? What other function does it provide?

Back 27

Indicate the frequency selected it also displays radio status.

Front 28

In what mode is the mode switch used?

Back 28

Back Up

Front 29

How do you control the radio volume on the F-16 aircraft?

Back 29

COMM 1 switch on the AUDIO 1 panel

Front 30

How can you use the T/Tone switch to transmit the TOD? How will you know if you were successful?

Back 30

Placing the switch to tone position if successful a 1020 Hz tone is heard

Front 31

What can you manually accomplish by using the T/Tone switch with the status switch?

Back 31

Load or Erase MWOD info, or accomplish the FMT-change.

Front 32

What switch will erase all MWOD information in the HQ II UHF radio?

Back 32

Zeroize Switch

Front 33

Which LRU splits the antenna for the upper and lower portions?

Back 33

Antenna selector

Front 34

What's the cycle rate when the ANT SEL switch is in NORMAL?

Back 34

70 (+/- 15) cycles per minute

Front 35

What does the throttle grip have to do with the UHF system?

Back 35

External control of the UHF radio

Front 36

What's the purpose of the RE-978/ ARC relay control?

Back 36

Provide a path for microphone and receiver audio in a non secure mode

Front 37

Where is the secure voice control panel located on the F-16 aircraft?

Back 37

Right console near the lighting panel

Front 38

What's the difference between CRAD 1 and CRAD 2?

Back 38

CRAD 1: UHF

CRAD 2: VHF

Front 39

In an F-16 aircraft that doesn't have the KY-58 system installed, how does the microphone audio get to the proper radio?

Back 39

The RE–978/ARC relay assembly routes it to the correct radio.

Front 40

The secure voice function is used in conjunction with what type of radios?

Back 40

UHF and VHF.

Front 41

What does encipher and decipher mean?

Back 41

Encipher means coding a voice transmission and decipher means decoding that transmission.

Front 42

How many LRUs make up the secure voice communication system? What are they?

Back 42

Five units: (1) secure voice control panel, (2) KY–58/TSEC secure voice processor. (3) Z–AHQ adapter,

(4) secure voice switching panel, and (5) RE–978/ARC set control.

Front 43

Where is the secure voice control panel located? What is its function?

Back 43

It’s located in the right console. Provides the pilot with a means of operating the system.

Front 44

What secure voice control panel switch is a guarded, lever-lock switch?

Back 44

Zeroize.

Front 45

Which switch of the secure voice panel is a six-position rotary switch? Why do you use it?

Back 45

The fill switch. Switch positions 1 through 6 are used to select the memory location of the secure voice

processor to be used in the CRAD 1 or CRAD 2 secure voice mode.

Front 46

What type of power is used by the secure voice system? How is it applied?

Back 46

28 VDC. Through a 5 amp circuit breaker

Front 47

Where is the secure voice processor located? What is its primary function?

Back 47

Behind access door 3302. Encrypt and decipher

Front 48

How long will the delay switch on the secure voice control panel delay the transmission?

Back 48

800 ms

Front 49

What’s the purpose of the Z-ALL position of the fill switch on the secure voice processor?

Back 49

Zeroize variables 1 through 6.

Front 50

Where are the following units located on a “C” model F–16?

a. Intercommunication amplifier and mount.

Back 50

Behind the forward seat, with the mount directly beneath the amplifier

Front 51

b. Intercommunication control amplifier.

Back 51

Under door 2318, just behind

the external power connector

Front 52

c. Intercommunication filter assembly.

Back 52

Connected to the intercommunication amplifier mount;

Front 53

d. Engine warning control unit (EWCU).

Back 53

Under the

right console in the forward cockpit

Front 54

e. Voice message unit (VMU).

Back 54

Under the right console

Front 55

f. Voice message unit drive assembly.

Back 55

Under the right console. It’s a

removable part of the right console electrical panel

Front 56

g. Voice inhibit switch.

Back 56

On the right console

Front 57

h. Audio 1 panel.

Back 57

In the left console

Front 58

i. Audio 2 panel.

Back 58

In

the left console, just aft of the audio 1 panel

Front 59

j. Aerial refueling intercommunication amplifier.

Back 59

Panel 2406

Front 60

k. Communication matrix.

Back 60

Next to the intercom amplifier behind the

seat.

Front 61

What is contained in the intercommunication amplifier?

Back 61

A microphone headset amplifier, a headset amplifier, resistive audio mixing network, power gain control

switch, and a microphone relay.

Front 62

The intercommunication amplifier mount consist of what components?

Back 62

Electrical connector, filter assembly, and a mounting plate.

Front 63

What is the main difference between the intercommunication control amplifier and the

intercommunication amplifier?

Back 63

Its location.

Front 64

What signals are produced by the EWCU?

Back 64

Two warning tones and two voice warnings

Front 65

What tone is used for the landing gear warning?

Back 65

250 Hz-tone at 5-Hz intervals

Front 66

What tone is used for the stall warning?

Back 66

A continuous 250-Hz tone

Front 67

What are the voice messages?

Back 67

They are “Warning, Warning” and “Caution, Caution.”

Front 68

What is the purpose of the VMU?

Back 68

Designed to substantially broaden the interphone vocabulary. It interfaces with other aircraft systems to

provide information to the pilot.

Front 69

What does the VMU drive assembly do?

Back 69

Interfaces with the CARA to provide commands to the VMU for ALTITUDE, ALTITUDE.

Front 70

What is the purpose of the voice inhibit switch?

Back 70

Turn off the voice message unit.

Front 71

Match each component in column A with the audio panel it is associated with in column B.

Panels in column B may be used more than once or not at all.

Column A Column B

____ (1) COMM 1.

____ (2) ILS.

____ (3) TACAN.

____ (4) Secure voice.

____ (5) Terrain following.

____ (6) MSL tone.

____ (7) Intercommunication control.

____ (8) Threat warning.

a. Audio 1.

b. Audio 2.

Back 71

(1) a; (2) b; (3) b; (4) a; (5) a; (6) a; (7) b; (8) a.

Front 72

What component provides a direct link between the tanker crew and the pilot during in-flight

refueling?

Back 72

ARIA

Front 73

What is used as the switchboard for the intercommunication system?

Back 73

COMM matrix.

Front 74

What are the operating controls for the intercom system?

Back 74

HOT MIC switch and volume control.

Front 75

Where are the operating controls for the intercom system located?

Back 75

Audio 2 panel.

Front 76

How is the interphone system used from the ground position?

Back 76

Press the push-to-talk switch on the ground cord assembly.

Front 77

Through which assemblies are all of the audio signals routed?

Back 77

Through the resistive networks on the COMM matrix assembly to the intercom amplifier.

Front 78

What audio signals of the F–16 aircraft are audible when the activation condition exists?

Back 78

TACAN, ILS, IFF, AIM–9 missile, radar threat warning, stall warning, landing gear warning, AOA

warning, voice warning messages, UHF, VHF, secure voice, and TF.

Front 79

Which two F–16 systems have audio tones that use Morse code?

Back 79

TACAN and ILS.

Front 80

On the F–16 aircraft, the audio 1 panel controls the audio levels for which systems?

Back 80

Secure voice, MSL, and threat warning.

Front 81

On the F–16 aircraft, the audio 2 panel controls the audio levels for which systems?

Back 81

TACAN, ILS, and intercom.

Front 82

What does the ARC–210 UHF/VHF radio provide?

Back 82

It provides voice mode in the 30 to 87.993, 136 to 173.993, and 225 to 399.975 MHz bands. The RT

transmits and receives voice on both 8.33 KHz and 25 KHz channels in the Air Traffic Control (ATC) band

(118 to 136.975 MHz). The radio also provides Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System

(SINCGARS) and Have Quick II (HQ II) jam resistant capabilities along with embedded secure voice

(KY–58) communications. International Maritime operation is also provided.

Front 83

What is the purpose of the high power amplifier?

Back 83

It receives RF signal from the ARC–210 UHF/VHF radio and amplifies it to approximately 140 watts

before transmission through the SATCOM antenna

Front 84

Which component routes the RF signal from the ARC–210 UHF/VHF radio to either the antenna

selector for non-SATCOM operation or to the high power amplifier for SATCOM operation?

Back 84

SATCOM RF switch

Front 85

Explain the UHF/VHF antenna selector’s three modes of operation

Back 85

When the LOWER position is selected, the selector couples the lower antenna to the UHF HQ II Phase II

radio and the upper antenna to the ARC–210 UHF/VHF radio. In the UPPER position, the selector couples

the upper antenna to the UHF HQ II Phase II radio and the lower antenna to the ARC–210 UHF/VHF radio.

This is accomplished by control logic. When the NORM position is selected, the selector provides

automatic cycling between the lower and upper antennas at a rate of 70 (± 15) cycles per minute.

Front 86

Which switches provide external control of the ARC–210 UHF/VHF radio?

Back 86

Switches on the ICP (forward), the throttle grip mic switch, and the UFC power switch on the avionics

power panel.

Front 87

On the ARC–210 UHF/VHF radio system, when is the transmitter enabled?

Back 87

When the mic switch is positioned to VHF.

Front 88

What does the DED provide for the ARC–210 UHF/VHF radio?

Back 88

In addition to furnishing a visual indication of transmitter keying, the DED furnishes a head-up display of

channel, frequency, and mode selection for the ARC–210 UHF/VHF radio.

Front 89

To assign a new frequency to a preset channel, what switch is depressed?

Back 89

COM 2 switch.

Front 90

List the ARC–210 UHF/VHF radio system modes of operation.

Back 90

Anti-jam mode, Cipher mode, ATC mode, Maritime mode, Guard, Back up mode, Built-in test, and

Satellite communication.

Front 91

What is required for the HQ frequency hopping operation to function?

Back 91

Three parameters are required: Word-of-Day (WOD), NET (AJ preset), and Time-of-Day (TOD).

Front 92

What is the purpose of the CUE channel in the SINCGARS guard channel?

Back 92

This allows a non-frequency hopping radio to alert a frequency hopping SINCGARS radio for help.

Front 93

What is the universal emergency guard frequency?

Back 93

243 MHz.

Front 94

List the SATCOM modes of operation.

Back 94

Dedicated , 25K DAMA, 5K DAMA, and DASA.

Front 95

Explain the dedicated operation mode of SATCOM.

Back 95

It allows a SATCOM terminal to operate on dedicated 25 KHz and 5 KHz UHF SATCOM channels. In a

dedicated channel mode, all SATCOM setup is automatic, (created with the AFP software and loaded into

the radio (Black Key) with the crypto key loader). No channel log in is required. Due to system sequencing,

the pilot must key the mic and wait 2 seconds before talking on the radio. When communication on that

SAT preset is complete, the pilot may change to another SAT preset or change to another radio mode. No

log out is required.

Front 96

How is the ARC–210 UHF/VHF radio system volume setting controlled?

Back 96

The COM 2 AUDIO page allows the pilot to set the sensitivity/volume of the MIC, SIDETONE, and

HEADSET.

Front 97

What are some of the steps taken during aircraft design and production to reduce EMI?

Back 97

The use of shielded lines, filter circuits, and well-planned LRU placement minimize most internal sources

of EMI.

Front 98

Give an example of EMI.

Back 98

The radar transmits, then “listens” for a reflected return. If the ECM system is operating and transmits a

pulse during the receive cycle of the radar, the radar may “hear” the pulse and interpret it as a reflected

return from an object.

Front 99

Describe the AIBU.

Back 99

It is a software programmable device that provides amplification, shaping, and distribution of blanking

pulses between onboard RF receive/transmit avionics systems to prevent interference.

Front 100

List the onboard systems that interface with the advanced interference blanker.

Back 100

FCR, TACAN, IFF, RTWS, and ECM.

Front 101

Where is the AIBU located?

Back 101

Behind the forward AC power panel, under access panel 1305.

Front 102

What is the advanced interference blanker's basic function? How does it perform this function?

Back 102

It functions as traffic cop for RF transmission and reception. It controls the exchange of blanking pulses

between onboard systems

Front 103

How is power applied to the AIBU?

Back 103

Power is applied to the AIBU when power is applied to the aircraft.

Front 104

What does non-interruptive mean as it applies to the AIBU self-test?

Back 104

It means the input blanking test signals will not limit the AIBU from performing its normal blanking

functions.

Front 105

When is the AIBU’s self-test not performed?

Back 105

When a BIT is being performed

Front 106

AIBU out of tolerance conditions are reported to what LRU?

Back 106

It is reported to the GAC.

Front 107

To what extent is the AIBU repairable for a flight line avionic systems maintainer?

Back 107

There is no organizational level repair capability for the AIBU; maintenance of the LRU is limited to depot

level only.

Front 108

What TO covers removal and installation of the AIBU?

Back 108

99JG–20–1.

Front 109

What is the transmitter power output for the AN/ARC–164 Have Quick II ultra-high

frequency (UHF) radio?

a. 5 watts.

b. 10 watts.

c. 15 watts.

d. 20 watts.

Back 109

B

Front 110

How many channels are available for the AN/ARC–164 Have Quick II ultra-high frequency

(UHF) radio?

a. 5,000.

b. 6,000.

c. 7,000.

d. 8,000.

Back 110

C

Front 111

What is the warm-up time for the AN/ARC–164 Have Quick II ultra-high frequency (UHF)

radio?

a. 5 seconds.

b. 7 seconds.

c. 10 seconds.

d. 15 seconds.

Back 111

C

Front 112

What is used to program the frequency-hopping pattern and rate for the Have Quick II, phase

II radio?

a. Net number.

b. Time of day (TOD).

c. Word of day (WOD).

d. Time of week (TOW).

Back 112

C

Front 113

Time of day (TOD) for the ultra-high frequency (UHF) radio can be established by

a. turning the radio on, setting the TOD switch to the official mode, and loading in the TOD.

b. a universal coordinated time hack with the global positioning satellite.

c. setting all clocks Air Force–wide at a specified time each day.

d. receipt from ground/tower/radar approach control (RAPCON).

Back 113

D

Front 114

What does the status switch on an ultra-high frequency (UHF) radio indicate?

a. Status of the UHF radio.

b. Status of the UHF frequencies.

c. Alternate display and holds for 5 seconds.

d. Alternate display and holds for 10 seconds.

Back 114

C

Front 115

What display would you get on the Have Quick II, phase II ultra-high frequency (UHF)

radio, if there were no word of day (WOD) loaded?

a. BAD.

b. ERROR.

c. INVALID.

d. No display.

Back 115

A

Front 116

Where is the secure voice control panel located on the F–16 aircraft?

a. Right console near the electronic counter measures (ECM) control panel.

b. Right console near the lighting control panel.

c. Left console near the lighting control panel.

d. Left console near the ECM control panel.

Back 116

B

Front 117

What is the unique feature to the dual-seat KY–58 interface?

a. Aft cockpit controls volumes.

b. Forward cockpit controls volumes.

c. Both cockpits are set to a preset volume.

d. Both cockpits have independent volume control.

Back 117

D

Front 118

On the KY–58 secure voice system, what controls the received message volume for

code/radio (C/RAD) 1 and 2?

a. AUDIO 1 panel.

b. AUDIO 2 panel.

c. COMM 1 control on up-front controls.

d. Volume control on secure voice control panel.

Back 118

A

Front 119

What is the power requirement for the KY–58 secure voice system and how is it applied?

a. 26 volts direct current (VDC); through a 5 amp circuit breaker.

b. 28 VDC; through a 5 amp circuit breaker.

c. 26 VDC; through a 10 amp circuit breaker.

d. 28 VDC; through a 10 amp circuit breaker.

Back 119

B

Front 120

What are the mode switch positions on the KY–58 secure voice control panel?

a. OFF, operational (OP) and load (LD).

b. OFF, baseband (BB) and diphase (DP).

c. Operational (OP), load (LD) and receive variable (RV).

d. Receive variable (RV), baseband (BB) and diphase (DP).

Back 120

C

Front 121

What are the two positions of the filter switch on the secure voice processor?

a. IN and OUT.

b. ON and OFF.

c. Load and plain.

d. Load and verify.

Back 121

A

Front 122

The Z-AHQ adapter allows the F–16 aircraft to use the

a. KY–28 in place of the KY–58.

b. KY–38 in place of the KY–58.

c. KY–58 in place of the KY–28.

d. KY–58 in place of the KY–38.

Back 122

C

Front 123

On the F–16 aircraft, the intercommunication amplifier contains

a. a power gain control switch, air refueling signal amplifier, and a voice message unit (VMU)

drive.

b. a VMU, VMU drive, power gain control, and a resistive audio mixing network.

c. an aerial refueling signal amplifier, microphone relay, communication matrix, and a filter

assembly.

d. a microphone headset amplifier, resistive audio mixing network, microphone relay, and a

power gain control switch.

Back 123

D

Front 124

You are experiencing a lot of crackling noise in the headsets of the F–16 aircraft. In view of

this, you would check out the

a. headsets.

b. filter assembly.

c. interphone amplifier.

d. communication matrix.

Back 124

B

Front 125

The intercommunication control amplifier consists of a microphone and headset amplifier, a

resistive audio mixing network, a microphone relay and a

a. volume control.

b. squelch control.

c. filter assembly.

d. gain control.

Back 125

A

Front 126

On the F–16 aircraft, where is the voice message unit for the interphone system located?

a. Behind the pilot’s seat.

b. In front of the pilot’s seat.

c. Under the left-hand console.

d. Under the right-hand console

Back 126

D

Front 127

Where is the intercommunication amplifier on a D–model F–16 located?

a. Under the aft seat.

b. Left of the console.

c. Right of the console.

d. Behind the pilot’s seat.

Back 127

A

Front 128

What are the operating controls for the intercom system?

a. Intercom microphone (MIC) switch and intercom volume control on the AUDIO 2 panel.

b. Intercom MIC switch and HOT MIC volume control on the AUDIO 1 panel.

c. HOT MIC switch and HOT MIC volume control on the AUDIO 1 panel.

d. HOT MIC switch and intercom volume control on the AUDIO 2 panel.

Back 128

D

Front 129

Where are the received audio signals, warning tones, and radio transmissions routed before

they are sent to the intercom amplifier and the operator headset?

a. Audio 1 panel.

b. Audio 2 panel.

c. Communication audio panel.

d. Communications matrix assembly.

Back 129

D

Front 130

What two systems give a Morse Code input to the F–16 interphone system?

a. Tactical air navigation (TACAN) and instrument landing system (ILS).

b. TACAN and identification friend or foe (IFF).

c. Radar bomb scoring (RBS) and ILS.

d. RBS and IFF.

Back 130

A

Front 131

On the F–16 ARC–210 very high frequency/ultra-high frequency (UHF/VHF) radio system,

when transmission is initiated, to which position is the mic switched placed?

a. AFT.

b. FWD.

c. Inboard.

d. Outboard.

Back 131

B

Front 132

On the F–16 ARC–210 very high frequency/ultra-high frequency (UHF/VHF) radio system,

which component splits outgoing VHF transmissions into transmitted frequencies and routes the

signals to the correct antenna?

a. VHF AM antenna.

b. VHF FM antenna.

c. VHF frequency diplexer.

d. UHF/VHF antenna selector.

Back 132

C

Front 133

If the pilot wants to assign a new frequency to a preset channel on the F–16 ARC–210 very

high frequency/ultra-high frequency (UHF/VHF) radio system, which switch would be

depressed?

a. COM 1.

b. COM 2.

c. M-SEL.

d. PRESET.

Back 133

B

Front 134

When the F–16 ARC–210 very high frequency/ultra-high frequency (UHF/VHF) radio is

receiving and transmitting on the UHF emergency frequency of 243 megahertz (MHz), what

mode of operation is being used?

a. Guard.

b. Cipher.

c. Anti-jam.

d. Maritime.

Back 134

A

Front 135

If the F–16 satellite communication (SATCOM) setup is automatic and no channel login is

required, which SATCOM mode of operation is being used?

a. 25K demand assigned multiple access (DAMA).

b. Demand assigned single access (DASA).

c. 5K DAMA.

d. Dedicated.

Back 135

D

Front 136

The advanced interference blanker unit (AIBU) interfaces with TACAN,

a. IFF, FCR, RTWS, and ECM.

b. INS, FCR, RTWS, IFF, and ECM.

c. SMS, FCR, RTWS, IFF, and ECM.

d. SMS, FCR, RTWS, IFF, INS, and ECM.

Back 136

A

Front 137

The advanced interference blanker unit (AIBU) communicates with the general avionic

computer (GAC) over the

a. AMUX bus.

b. BMUX bus.

c. CMUX bus.

d. DMUX bus.

Back 137

B

Front 138

The advanced interference blanker unit (AIBU) is operational anytime power is applied to

a. the stores management system (SMS).

b. the general avionic computer (GAC).

c. both the GAC and SMS.

d. the aircraft.

Back 138

D

Front 139

Advanced interference blanker unit (AIBU) faults are reported to the

a. up-front controls (UFC).

b. general avionics computer (GAC).

c. Stores Management System (SMS).

d. Advanced Central Interface Unit (ACIU).

Back 139

B

Front 140

Which technical order (TO) contains procedures for advanced interference blanker unit

(AIBU) removal and installation?

a. 99JG–00–1.

b. 99JG–10–1.

c. 99JG–20–1.

d. 99JG–30–1.

Back 140

C

Front 141

Why do aircrews use TACAN?

Back 141

They use it for point-to-point navigation by determining the relative bearing and slant-range distance to a

selected TACAN station.

Front 143

Where may a TACAN station be located?

Back 143

On the ground, shipboard, or airborne.

Front 144

Define relative bearing

Back 144

It is the directional position of an aircraft relative to a known TACAN station location.

Front 145

What signals does the TACAN receiver use to achieve accurate bearing?

Back 145

Through the use of TACAN station transmitted “course” and “fine” adjustment signals

Front 146

To what degree of accuracy is the TACAN bearing signal refined using the course and fine

adjustment signals?

Back 146

Course signal to bearing within 40 degrees and the fine signal reduce the bearing error to less than 1 degree.

Front 147

Define slant range.

Back 147

The straight-line distance between the aircraft and the TACAN station.

Front 148

How is TACAN slant range determined?

Back 148

By using distance reply pulse pairs received from a TACAN station surface beacon in response to an

airborne TACAN system interrogation.

Front 149

What is the purpose of the station identity tone?

Back 149

To identify a particular TACAN station and aid crewmembers in locating their position on a map with a

fairly high degree of precision.

Front 150

What signals are used to derive TACAN information displays?

Back 150

Relative bearing and slant range distance signals received from a TACAN station.

Front 151

What are the four TACAN signal acquisition display states?

Back 151

These states are search, lock-on, track, and memory.

Front 152

Bearing pointer slews clockwise

Back 152

Search

Front 153

Bearing pointer stops slewing.

Back 153

Lock-On

Front 154

Bearing pointer stays in last reliable position for three

seconds before entering self-

Back 154

Memory

Front 155

Bearing pointer follows the movement of the aircraft

relative to the TACAN station.

Back 155

Track

Front 156

On the F–16, how is TACAN information selected for display on the HSI?

Back 156

By selecting the positions labeled either ILS/TCN or TCN on the IMSC.

Front 157

Where would you expect to find TACAN slant range indication on the HSI?

Back 157

In the HSI miles window.

Front 158

What does a red and white bar on the HSI indicate?

Back 158

That TACAN slant range is unavailable when the system is not locked on to a TACAN station, or the

TACAN system measurement circuits have failed.

Front 159

What HSI indicator is characterized by its continuous rotation when the system is in search

mode?

Back 159

The bearing pointer.

Front 160

What is used to reference the compass card magnetic heading?

Back 160

The upper lubber line.

Front 161

What indicator is offset anytime a difference exists between the selected course and an acquired

TACAN station?

Back 161

The course deviation bar.

Front 162

For TACAN on the course deviation scale, how many degrees of course deviation are represented

by each dot and what is the maximum amount of determinable deviation using this scale?

Back 162

Each dot represents 5 degrees of deviation with a maximum determinable deviation of 10 degrees left or right.

Front 163

Why is the HSI aircraft symbol used?

Back 163

To indicate aircraft centerline direction and as a reference point to relate HSI displays.

Front 164

When the TACAN mode selection is driving the HSI display, what does a red rectangle

represent?

Back 164

That either the TACAN system is off or is unable to track the TACAN station bearing signal.

Front 165

What does the TACAN system provide to the crewmember?

Back 165

Visual displays of relative bearing, slant range distance and TO-FROM indication to a transmitting

TACAN station and audio identification of the TACAN station.

Front 166

What is the maximum LOS operating range for the TACAN system for both surface and airborne

TACAN stations?

Back 166

Approximately 390 nautical miles for surface and 200 nautical miles for airborne stations.

Front 167

What is the operating voltage for the TACAN R/T and from where does it come?

Back 167

115 VAC is supplied from the right strake AC power panel via the TACAN shock mount on-off relay.

Front 168

How many channels does the TACAN R/T incorporate for dual mode operation?

Back 168

126 X-band and 126 Y-band channels.

Front 169

What is the TACAN system accuracy maximum error for REC, T/R, and A/A T/R modes?

Back 169

A maximum error of +/- 0.2 nautical miles for slant range for all modes, +/- 3.0 degrees for REC and T/R mode

bearing, and +/- 5 degrees for A/A T/R bearing.

Front 170

The D/A converter converts digitized information into what format and what is it used to

indicate?

Back 170

The digitized information is converted into a three-wire analog format and used for indicating slant range

distance, relative bearing, course deviation, and TO-FROM.

Front 171

How is the D/A adapter provided cooling air?

Back 171

Spacing between the R/T and the adapter is engineered to provide a flow of cooling air from the R/T

blower.

Front 172

The TACAN shock mount provides electrical interface for what components?

Back 172

Between the R/T, D/A adapter, and various cockpit components

Front 173

What voltages are received by the shock mount power relay and for what are these voltages used?

Back 173

This relay receives 115 VAC from the right strake AC power panel for R/T operation, 26 VAC from the

TACAN step-down transformer for D/A adapter operation, and 28 VDC from the aft equipment bay DC

power panel for HSI range shutter control

Front 174

What power is supplied to the D/A adapter from the step-down transformer?

Back 174

26 VAC.

Front 175

What provides for primary control of the TACAN system?

Back 175

The UFC.

Front 176

What provides for backup control of the TACAN system?

Back 176

The AUX COMM panel.

Front 177

Where would you find the on/off control and the station identity tone volume control for the

TACAN system?

Back 177

On the AUDIO 2 panel.

Front 178

To the side and about 1,400 feet from the approach end

of the runway.

Back 178

Glide slope.

Front 179

Emits alternating dots and dashes.

Back 179

Middle marker.

Front 180

Emits continuous dashes.

Back 180

Outer marker.

Front 181

Provides on-course signal to aircraft.

Back 181

Localizer.

Front 182

Between 4 and 7 miles from the runway approach.

Back 182

Outer marker.

Front 183

Operates in the UHF band between 329 and 335 MHz

Back 183

Glide slope.

Front 184

Modulated with a 1,300 Hz tone.

Back 184

Middle marker.

Front 185

Course normally 1° wide.

Back 185

Glide slope.

Front 186

Operates in the VHF band between 108 and 112 MHz.

Back 186

Localizer.

Front 187

About 3,500 feet from the runway approach.

Back 187

Middle marker.

Front 188

Located at the end of the runway opposite the

approach end.

Back 188

Localizer.

Front 189

Modulated with a 400-Hz tone.

Back 189

Outer marker.

Front 190

Emits continuous stream of dots.

Back 190

Inner marker.

Front 191

The localizer transmitter provides an on-course signal to an aircraft under what parameters?

Back 191

It provides an on-course signal to an aircraft within 25 miles of the runway, 30° either side of course

centerline, and at altitudes up to 2,000 feet.

Front 192

What localizer term is defined as the distance between a full fly left and a full fly right indication

at any point along the course?

Back 192

The localizer course width.

Front 193

In what frequency band is localizer information sent?

Back 193

VHF.

Front 194

In what frequency band is glide slope information sent?

Back 194

UHF

Front 195

What is set up by glide slope information?

Back 195

The proper vertical approach angle to land an aircraft

Front 196

What do marker beacons indicate?

Back 196

The distance to the approach end of the runway

Front 197

Of the three marker beacons, which one is not normally used at most airfields?

Back 197

The inner marker.

Front 198

What is frequency pairing?

Back 198

The matching of the proper glide slope frequency with the operator selected localizer frequency

Front 199

How many ILS channels are available for ILS operation?

Back 199

40 channels

Front 200

What typical aircraft indicators are used for ILS displays?

Back 200

The ADI, HSI, and HUD

Front 201

What indicator displays localizer deviation only?

Back 201

The HSI.

Front 202

How are the two localizer 90- and 150-Hz lobes oriented in relation to the runway centerline?

Back 202

The 90-Hz lobe is transmitted left of the centerline and the 150-Hz lobe is transmitted right of the

centerline

Front 203

What do we mean when we refer to the course deviation bar on the HSI as being oriented for

positive sensing?

Back 203

It means the pilot must steer the aircraft toward the bar to correct the aircraft position.

Front 204

If an aircraft is approaching a runway and the 90- and 150-Hz localizer signals are equal, where is

the localizer bar on the HSI?

Back 204

Centered.

Front 205

If an aircraft is left of the centerline, which localizer transmitted signal is stronger?

Back 205

The 90-Hz signal.

Front 206

If an aircraft is right of the centerline, which localizer transmitted signal is stronger?

Back 206

The 150-Hz signal

Front 207

What do the four dots on the HSI represent in regards to ILS?

Back 207

Scaled left/right deviation with each dot normally representing 5 degrees of deviation.

Front 208

How are the two glide slope 90- and 150-Hz lobes oriented in relation to the proper glide path?

Back 208

The 90-Hz lobe is transmitted above the glide path and the 150-Hz lobe is transmitted below the glide path.

Front 209

What indicator is used for primary display of glide slope deviation?

Back 209

The ADI

Front 210

What components might you find on an ADI that provide glide slope indication?

Back 210

The glide slope deviation bar, glide slope pointer, and the glide slope scale

Front 211

Where would you expect the glide slope deviation bar to be positioned on the ADI with the 90 Hz

and 150 Hz signals equal in strength?

Back 211

Centered

Front 212

With the aircraft below its glide path, which glide slope signal is stronger?

Back 212

The 150-Hz signal

Front 213

In what direction will the pilot need to fly to get the aircraft on its glide path if the aircraft is

above its glide path?

Back 213

Down.

Front 214

What indicators use the localizer signal to drive the deviation bars for proper runway alignment?

Back 214

The ADI, HSI, and HUD

Front 215

What indicators receive the localizer valid signal?

Back 215

The ADI, HSI, and HUD

Front 216

What indications would you expect to see with an invalid localizer signal?

Back 216

The localizer bar on the HUD will be dashed and both the ADI LOC flag and HSI deviation warn flag will

be in view.

Front 217

What indicators use the glide slope signal to drive their respective deviation bars?

Back 217

The ADI and the HUD.

Front 218

What indications would you expect to see with an invalid glide slope signal?

Back 218

The glide slope flag will be in view on the ADI and the glide slope bar on the HUD will be dashed.

Front 219

What output functions are provided from the ILS receiver sections?

Back 219

Localizer, glide slope, and marker beacon functions

Front 220

What signals comprise the localizer function?

Back 220

Localizer deviation, localizer validity, and localizer audio

Front 221

What signals comprise the glide slope function?

Back 221

Glide slope deviation and glide slope validity

Front 222

Which localizer and glide slope function signal is not routed through the mode select coupler?

Back 222

The localizer audio signal.

Front 223

What voltage is supplied to the ILS receiver power supply and from where does it come?

Back 223

The ILS receiver power supply receives 28-VDC from the right strake DC power panel

Front 224

What is the purpose of the ILS system diplexer?

Back 224

To split the localizer and glide slope signals into their separate components

Front 225

What voltage is supplied to the marker beacon light and from where does this voltage come?

Back 225

Six VDC is provided to the marker beacon lamp from the lamp driver module within the ILS receiver

Front 226

What is the relationship between marker beacon signal modulation rates and the beacons

themselves?

Back 226

The 400-, 1,300-, and 3,000-Hz modulations correspond to signals received from the outer, middle, and

inner markers respectively.

Front 227

What are the ILS enterable parameters via the UFC?

Back 227

Localizer frequency, runway heading, and mode selection of the ILS command steering option.

Front 228

What component provides ILS turn on/off and volume control of ILS ground installation

identification audio?

Back 228

The AUDIO 2 panel.

Front 229

What component is used to select whether or not ILS information is displayed on the various

indicators?

Back 229

The IMSC.

Front 230

What does the AIFF (AN/APX–113) provide ground stations or appropriately equipped aircraft?

Back 230

Identification and aircraft position.

Front 231

Which AIFF component provides the means for system power turn-on, selection of BACK UP

(mode 4 only) operation, and zeroizing preset mode 4 codes?

Back 231

IFF control panel

Front 232

When depressed, what does the IFF IDENT switch enable?

Back 232

The AIFF CIT for 15 to 30 seconds to permit transponder response(s) with an I/P pulse.

Front 233

What does the transponder function of the CIT transmit?

Back 233

Coded replies to correctly coded interrogations in modes 1, 2, 3/A, 4, C, and S.

Front 234

What does the interrogator function of the CIT transmit?

Back 234

The capability to selectively interrogate other aircraft in modes 1, 2, 3/A, and 4 (KIV–6).

Front 235

How many AIFF transponder and interrogator modes are there and what are they?

Back 235

There are 6 modes which are modes 1, 2, 3/A, 4, C, and S.

Front 236

Which AIFF mode is used for altitude reporting?

Back 236

Mode C.

Front 237

What is the purpose of the KIV–6 mode 4 computer?

Back 237

To initiate a challenge with encrypted code and respond to a challenge with a time-coded reply.

Front 238

How is selection of the AIFF system antennas accomplished?

Back 238

By manipulation of the IFF antenna select switch on the ANTI-ICE and ANT SEL panel.

Front 239

What is the purpose of the AIFF interrogator?

Back 239

It provides the capability to selectively interrogate aircraft to determine if they are friendly or

undetermined.

Front 240

If the side stick controller TMS switch is depressed left for less than 0.6 seconds, what would

result?

Back 240

It will command a SCAN interrogation

Front 241

If the side stick controller TMS switch is depressed left for 0.6 seconds or longer, what would

result?

Back 241

It will command a LOS interrogation

Front 242

Where are the AIFF target positions displayed?

Back 242

On the MFD.

Front 243

Which DED interrogator page is used to set the modes and codes for an interrogation ±60 degrees

in azimuth and ±60 degrees in elevation or coupled to the radar FOV?

Back 243

The SCAN INTG page

Front 244

List the required conditions for interrogation to be initiated by moving the TMS switch left.

Back 244

IFF MASTER control knob on the IFF control panel is positioned to LOW, NORM, STBY, or EMER; The

AIFF is communicating on the mux bus; and the radar mode is air-to-air, standby, or OFF.

Front 245

A friendly response is represented by which symbol displayed on the MFD?

Back 245

Open circle

Front 246

An unknown response is represented by which symbol displayed on the MFD?

Back 246

Open square

Front 247

If a mode 1 interrogation signal is valid, what will be the result?

Back 247

A mode 1 reply is generated and routed to the appropriate antenna for transmission

Front 248

If a mode 2 interrogation signal is invalid, what reply is transmitter?

Back 248

No reply is transmitted

Front 249

The mode 4 interrogation consists of what?

Back 249

A series of four sync pulses followed by up to thirty-two information pulses

Front 250

What must be loaded in order for mode 4 to properly operate?

Back 250

Mode 4 coefficients

Front 251

What does an illuminated IFF light indicate?

Back 251

A mode 4 computer is installed, power is applied to aircraft, the MASTER switch is in any position other

than OFF, but (1) mode 4 computer codes are zeroed, (2) AIFF system is not replying to valid mode 4

interrogations with no video disparities, and/or (3) AIFF system fails transmitter BIT during mode 4 replies.

Front 252

What does mode S provide?

Back 252

It provides unique aircraft identification, enhanced altitude resolution, and flight details to specific

interrogations rather than general broadcasts (like modes 1, 2, 3/A, and C).

Front 253

What is the purpose of the emergency (EMER) position of the IFF MASTER switch on the IFF

control panel?

Back 253

It enables all modes for operation regardless of the current mode selected.

Front 254

What is the main component of the MIDS?

Back 254

The MIDS LVT.

Front 255

What is the purpose of the fixed notch filter?

Back 255

Blocks TACAN transmissions in the IFF transmit frequencies

Front 256

The upper MIDS antenna is found only on which model F–16?

Back 256

D-model.

Front 257

Which MIDS antenna is a flush mounted, L-band, dish antenna?

Back 257

Lower MIDS.

Front 258

Where is the MIDS LVT switch located?

Back 258

On the avionics power panel.

Front 259

What provides power to the MIDS main terminal when the MIDS LVT switch is positioned to

ON?

Back 259

Remote power supply.

Front 260

The GPS external time reference network provides an input to what component?

Back 260

MIDS terminal

Front 261

What is the dedicated terminal that defines network time?

Back 261

NTR.

Front 262

How is network fine synchronization achieved?

Back 262

Either automatically or by either reception of GPS time updates or by transmitting RTT messages to other

LINK–16 participants.

Front 263

What are the two channel selections used to indicate which LINK–16 subnet is being used to

transmit and receive messages pertaining to specific functions?

Back 263

Fighter and Mission Channel.

Front 264

A LINK–16 PPLI message provides what?

Back 264

Network participation, identification, positional information, and relative navigation information.

Front 265

LINK–16 A-A symbology provides information to the pilot through what?

Back 265

Shape, color, and fill of symbols

Front 266

The MMC maintains up to how many LINK–16 tracks in the air-air system track files?

Back 266

30.

Front 267

What color and shape are used to distinguish LINK–16 identities?

Back 267

Friend (green circle), neutral (white circle); unknown, pending, and assumed friend (white square); suspect

(yellow square), and hostile (red triangle).

Front 268

MIDS LINK–16 air-ground functions receive what type of information?

Back 268

Situational Awareness and ground or maritime surface tracks.

Front 269

When will LINK–16 functions become degraded?

Back 269

If the MMC, MFDS, MIDS, INS, GPS, AIBU, or switched notch filter becomes inoperable.

Front 270

What information does tactical air navigation (TACAN) provide to an aircrew?

a. Altitude, relative bearing, and slant range.

b. Slant range, altitude, and station identity tone.

c. Altitude, relative bearing, and station identity tone.

d. Slant range, relative bearing, and station identity tone.

Back 270

D

Front 271

Name the locations of tactical air navigation (TACAN) stations.

a. Ground, space, and airborne.

b. Ground, shipboard, and space.

c. Space, shipboard, and airborne.

d. Ground, shipboard, and airborne

Back 271

D

Front 272

In tactical air navigation (TACAN) terms, relative bearing is the

a. location of a TACAN station in relation to magnetic north.

b. angular distance between the TACAN station and the aircraft.

c. straight-line distance between the TACAN station and the aircraft.

d. directional position of the aircraft in relation to a known TACAN station.

Back 272

D

Front 273

What is the time delay before a tactical air navigation (TACAN) station replies to an

airborne system interrogation?

a. 10 microseconds.

b. 50 microseconds.

c. 10 milliseconds.

d. 50 milliseconds.

Back 273

B

Front 274

How many letters are contained in the Morse code identification tone for station identity?

a. Three.

b. Four.

c. Five.

d. Six.

Back 274

A

Front 275

Specific tactical air navigation (TACAN) information is displayed on the

a. horizontal situation indicator (HSI).

b. attitude direction indicator (ADI).

c. multifunction display (MFD).

d. head-up display (HUD).

Back 275

A

Front 276

When the bearing pointer on the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) slews clockwise at

about 30° per second, the aircraft tactical air navigation (TACAN) system is said to be

a. tracking.

b. defective.

c. searching.

d. locked-on.

Back 276

C

Front 277

What state is the tactical air navigation (TACAN) system in when the distance readout is

being continuously updated due to distance changes?

a. Track.

b. Fixed.

c. Locked.

d. Ranging.

Back 277

A

Front 278

For tactical air navigation (TACAN), the display of a red and white striped bar on the HSI

indicates

a. a TACAN course deviation warning.

b. relative bearing information is invalid.

c. power has been lost to the TACAN system.

d. the TACAN measurement circuits have failed.

Back 278

D

Front 279

For tactical air navigation (TACAN), which of the following describes a centered course

deviation bar indication?

a. The TACAN station and the “to” arrow are in agreement.

b. The TACAN station and the selected course are in agreement.

c. The TACAN station and the heading marker are in agreement.

d. The TACAN station and the magnetic heading are in agreement.

Back 279

B

Front 280

On the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) course deviation scale for tactical air navigation

(TACAN), how many degrees of course deviation does each dot represent?

a. 2.5(.

b. 5(.

c. 10(.

d. 12.5(.

Back 280

B

Front 281

For the F–16, what is the tactical air navigation (TACAN) maximum line-of-sight operating

range from a surface beacon and an airborne beacon, respectively?

a. 200 and 200 nautical miles (NM).

b. 200 and 390 NM.

c. 390 and 200 NM.

d. 390 and 390 NM.

Back 281

C

Front 282

For the F–16, what converts the tactical air navigation (TACAN) receiver-transmitter output

to a format compatible with the horizontal situation indicator (HSI)?

a. HSI buffer assembly.

b. TACAN shockmount.

c. Digital-to-analog (D/A) adapter.

d. TACAN receiver-transmitter I/O section.

Back 282

C

Front 283

For the F–16, what tactical air navigation (TACAN) component houses a relay that receives

power for horizontal situation indicator (HSI) range shutter control?

a. TACAN receiver/transmitter (R/T).

b. Digital-to-analog (D/A) adapter.

c. TACAN shockmount.

d. Signal data converter.

Back 283

C

Front 284

What component provides the F–16 tactical air navigation (TACAN) system turn-on and

volume control?

a. TACAN receiver/transmitter (R/T).

b. TACAN control panel.

c. AUDIO 1 panel.

d. AUDIO 2 panel.

Back 284

D

Front 285

The instrument landing system (ILS) localizer and glide-slope signals use what frequency

band(s)?

a. Both use UHF.

b. Both use VHF.

c. Localizer VHF and glide-slope UHF.

d. Localizer UHF and glide-slope VHF

Back 285

C

Front 286

The upper and lower side of the instrument landing system (ILS) glide slope course is

modulated at

a. 150 and 90 Hz, respectively.

b. 90 and 150 Hz, respectively.

c. 120 and 70 Hz, respectively.

d. 70 and 120 Hz, respectively.

Back 286

B

Front 287

What is “set up” for an aircraft using glide slope information?

a. Proper left/right runway approach.

b. Identification of ILS ground station.

c. Distance to the approach end of the runway.

d. Proper vertical approach angle to land the aircraft.

Back 287

D

Front 288

At what frequency is the marker beacon signal modulated for the outer marker?

a. 90 hertz (Hz).

b. 150 Hz.

c. 400 Hz.

d. 1,300 Hz.

Back 288

C

Front 289

What type of marker is normally not used for marker beacon at most airfields?

a. Inner.

b. Outer.

c. Center.

d. Middle.

Back 289

A

Front 290

What aircraft indicator(s) provide for display of both localizer and glide slope deviation

information?

a. Attitude direction indicator (ADI).

b. Horizontal situation indicator (HSI).

c. ADI and the HSI.

d. ADI and the head-up display (HUD).

Back 290

D

Front 291

For the instrument landing system (ILS) ground installation transmission pattern, one radio

frequency (RF) lobe is transmitted to the left of the centerline and the other lobe is transmitted

right of the centerline. How are these lobes modulated?

a. The left lobe is amplitude modulated at 90 Hz and right lobe is amplitude modulated at 150 Hz.

b. The left lobe is amplitude modulated at 150 Hz and right lobe is amplitude modulated at 90 Hz.

c. The left lobe is frequency modulated at 90 Hz and right lobe is frequency modulated at 150 Hz.

d. The left lobe is frequency modulated at 150 Hz and right lobe is frequency modulated at 90 Hz.

Back 291

A

Front 292

For the F–16, what instrument landing system (ILS) component accepts system power and

where is this power from?

a. ILS shockmount receives 28 volts direct current (VDC) from the right strake DC power panel.

b. ILS shockmount receives 115 volts alternating current (VAC) from the forward AC power

panel.

c. ILS receiver (power supply module) receives 28 VDC from the right strake DC power panel.

d. ILS receiver (power supply module) receives 115 VAC from the forward AC power panel.

Back 292

C

Front 293

What is the purpose of the instrument landing system (ILS) diplexer?

a. Combine localizer signals (108 to 112 megahertz (MHz)) and glide slope signals (329 to 335

MHz).

b. Combine localizer signals (329 to 335 MHz) and glide slope signals (108 to 112 MHz).

c. Split localizer signals (108 to 112 MHz) and glide slope signals (329 to 335 MHz).

d. Split localizer signals (329 to 335 MHz) and glide slope signals (108 to 112 MHz).

Back 293

C

Front 294

The ON/OFF and volume controls of the station identity audio for the F–16 instrument

landing system (ILS) are contained on what cockpit component?

a. Audio 1 panel.

b. Audio 2 panel.

c. AUX COMM panel.

d. ILS control panel

Back 294

B

Front 295

When the F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system is reporting altitude,

which transponder and interrogator mode is operating?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. C.

Back 295

D

Front 296

When the F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system enables traffic identity

operation, which mode is it using?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3/A.

d. 4.

Back 296

C

Front 297

When the F–16 advanced identification friend or foe (AIFF) system enables encrypted

identity operation, which mode is it using?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3/A.

d. 4.

Back 297

D

Front 298

Which F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS) antenna operates in the

960 to 1220 megahertz (MHz) frequency range?

a. Lower very high frequency (VHF)/MIDS antenna.

b. Upper ultra-high frequency (UHF)/MIDS antenna.

c. Lower UHF/MIDS antenna.

d. Upper MIDS antenna.

Back 298

D

Front 299

When the F–16 multifunction information distribution system (MIDS) achieves a fine

synchronization, what is displayed?

a. FINE.

b. SYNC.

c. READY.

d. LINK–16.

Back 299

A

Front 300

In order to achieve optimal system performance, what antenna factors must be taken into

consideration?

Back 300

Location, patterns, sensitivity, and polarization.

Front 301

Define antenna cross polarization.

Back 301

If an antenna is designed to receive a particular polarization, it will have difficulty receiving a signal with

an opposite polarization

Front 302

What are the affects of cross polarization on a RWR?

Back 302

The radar threat signal may not be detected, or may be displayed on the scope well after the threat has

acquired the aircraft.

Front 303

What are the two types of receivers currently used in RWR systems?

Back 303

The crystal video receiver and the superheterodyne receiver.

Front 304

What are some advantages of a CVR?

Back 304

They’re extremely fast, sensitive, and cover a wide frequency range.

Front 305

What is the major disadvantage of a scanning SHR?

Back 305

Its limited capability to receive signals from threat systems employing scanning antenna patterns.

Front 306

Referring to question six, how is this disadvantage eliminated?

Back 306

By employing specific computer-controlled tuning (via a receiver controlling device) to look for these

threat signals.

Front 307

At what point does RWR signal processing begin?

Back 307

When RF energy strikes the receive antennas

Front 308

What does the signal processor do with a newly received radar threat?

Back 308

It makes a corresponding track file of the received threat.

Front 309

Name some characteristics of a received threat that would likely be incorporated into a track file.

Back 309

Radio frequency, pulse width, pulse repetition frequency

Front 310

In order for the signal processor to identify a potential threat, the threat’s track file is compared to

what data?

Back 310

Data in the EID table

Front 311

When would a Pacer Ware action be initiated?

Back 311

If a new threat appears that is not part of the current EID.

Front 312

What RWR component generates threat symbology?

Back 312

The signal processor.

Front 313

When would a threat be displayed at the 12 o’clock position?

Back 313

When the two forward antennas receive equal signal strength.

Front 314

What normally provides the initial alert of a detected threat?

Back 314

Threat audio, sometimes referred to as “new guy” alert audio.

Front 315

How many E–J band antennas are present on the ALR–69 RTWS?

Back 315

Eight.

Front 316

What RTWS components provide DF and omnicapability for missile guidance RF signals that fall

in the Band-0 spectrum?

Back 316

The C/D band antenna, in conjunction with the C/D band amplifier-detector and the signal processor.

Front 317

What’s done if the signal processor detects signal ambiguity amongst Band 3 frequencies?

Back 317

It’ll request FSRS intervention for signal ambiguity resolution

Front 318

What four E–J band antennas feed directly into the FSR?

Back 318

The two LEF E–J mounted antennas and the two aft lower E–J antennas.

Front 319

What component is considered the ALR–69’s communications hub?

Back 319

The signal processor.

Front 320

What’s the AZ indicators main purpose?

Back 320

To display alphanumeric and geometric symbols, which are designed to alert the pilot of potential

hazardous threats.

Front 321

What does the presence of the four threshold bars on the AZ display indicate?

Back 321

Normal amp-detector noise in RF Bands, 1, 2, 3, and 0.

Front 322

What’s indicated if a threshold bar is extinguished?

Back 322

Excess noise in the applicable band.

Front 323

Define the term cycle time.

Back 323

The time required for the signal processor to analyze and display all four bands of data.

Front 324

What indicates cycle time, and where is it displayed?

Back 324

The cycle timer bar; on the AZ indicator

Front 325

What’s indicated when a threat symbol is enclosed by a diamond symbol?

Back 325

Highest priority displayed

Front 326

What’s the ALR–69’s main controlling device?

Back 326

The CMSP.

Front 327

Where are the RTWS menu rotary pages displayed?

Back 327

They’re displayed in the CMSP’s display window.

Front 328

When a file function is selected, what’s essentially being selected?

Back 328

An EID file.

Front 329

What’s displayed if the high-altitude threat priority file is selected for use? Where’s it displayed?

Back 329

HIGH; in column 3 of the CMSP display window.

Front 330

How is the RTWS menu rotary page #2 selected?

Back 330

By depressing the CMSP’s NXT button to the down position

Front 331

What type of display does the CMSC provide?

Back 331

A heads-up display

Front 332

What’s indicated if the CMSC’s PRI LED is extinguished?

Back 332

The OPEN mode is enabled, which allows display of up to 16 symbols on the AZ indicator.

Front 333

If the PRI LED is illuminated, how many threats can be displayed?

Back 333

Only the five most lethal threats.

Front 334

When is the SEP OSS typically used?

Back 334

If displayed threat symbols overlap or are superimposed.

Front 335

What occurs if the UNK LED is illuminated?

Back 335

Unknown threat emitters are displayed on the AZ indicator, which are represented by a “U”.

Front 336

What does a flashing orange LED signify?

Back 336

A missile launch condition exists.

Front 337

Under a failed condition, what does the F denote when displayed in the AZ indicators center?

Back 337

A failure to communicate or that there is a fault associated with a video line, FSRS receiver, or FSRS

receiver controller.

Front 338

How often is the auto self-test executed?

Back 338

Every 8 to 10 minutes in light threat density and in the absence of any ML or missile activity conditions.

Front 339

What are the two tests that comprise system self-test?

Back 339

LAMP/AUDIO TEST and SUMMARIES.

Front 340

During the LAMP/AUDIO TEST portion of system self-test, what’s displayed on the AZ

indicator?

Back 340

ML tone and CMSC lamp status, plus RTWS software version number.

Front 341

How many steps comprise the SUMMARIES portion of system self-test?

Back 341

Four.

Front 342

Where are the results of SUMMARIES displayed?

Back 342

On the AZ indicator.

Front 343

What switch is used to hold a specific maintenance test display for observation purposes?

Back 343

The CMSC’s UNK switch.

Front 344

What three components provide the pilot interface to the EW, RWR and JMR systems?

Back 344

(1) CMSP.

(2) CMSC.

(3) EEECP.

Front 345

What component provides for real-time control of operation, mode selection, and management of

each individual EW system?

Back 345

CMSP.

Front 346

How many CPUs and running programs does the CMSP contain?

Back 346

Four; eight

Front 347

When is power supplied to the CMSP and CMSC?

Back 347

When the MODE switch is placed to STDBY

Front 348

What component provides the system “heads-up” indicator for EW notifications, warnings, and

status display?

Back 348

CMSC

Front 349

What happens if the WOW override is used to check internal dispenser functions?

Back 349

Damage to the ALQ–213 CMSP will result

Front 350

What happens when the elbow switch is momentary positioned down?

Back 350

Initiates the DISP program selected.

Front 351

What switch, when depressed, interrupts the DISP program or inhibits JMR from transmitting in

all modes of operation?

Back 351

The chaff/flare DISP (bump) switch

Front 352

What position of the chaff/flare ECM consent switch inhibits active JMR operation?

Back 352

Right.

Front 353

What component contains the RTDB and HSDB hub for RTWS communications with the

weapon stations?

Back 353

The C-MUX #2.

Front 354

Which WOW switch is used to allow chaff dispensing from the PIDS–3 pylon?

Back 354

The right main landing gear.

Front 355

How does the ALQ–213 system communicate with the RWR?

Back 355

A discrete interface and the dual-redundant serial communication channels in the EW bus

Front 356

How does the ALQ–213 interface with the reconnaissance pod?

Back 356

Via an RS–422 serial bus interface.

Front 357

Where are azimuth-oriented Band 0 video inputs applied?

Back 357

To the signal processor

Front 358

Where are signals received from the two aft lower E–J antennas (vertical tail) sent?

Back 358

Directly into the FSRS’ receiver.

Front 359

What component produces an alphanumeric/geometric symbol representative of the threat’s

identity?

Back 359

The AZ indicator.

Front 360

What is indicated when a threshold bar is missing, but the system test for that band is good (all

four band symbols present)?

Back 360

The detection range for that band has been reduced, but the system is still usable with caution.

Front 361

How is normal processor operation indicated on the AZ indicator?

Back 361

The cycle timer bar alternately flashes on each side of the noise bar.

Front 362

What does the diamond symbol indicate?

Back 362

The highest PRI threat.

Front 363

How many threats are displayed on the AZ indicator in the OPEN and PRI modes?

Back 363

OPEN displays 16; PRI displays five.

Front 364

Where are the highest priority threats displayed in SEP mode?

Back 364

Along a 45 degree diagonal line if space on the AZ indicator permits.

Front 365

What does the presence of a “U” indicate on the AZ indicator?

Back 365

Unknown threat emitters are being displayed.

Front 366

What ALR–56 components are used together to provide 360 degrees azimuth coverage and direction

finding capability for missile guidance RF signals?

Back 366

The C/D band antenna assembly, CDR, SHR, SHC, and AP.

Front 367

What ALR–56 components are used together to provide 360degreed azimuth coverage and direction

finding capability for E–J band emitters?

Back 367

E–J band antennas, DFRs, SHR, SHC, and AP.

Front 368

From which ALR–56 component does the AZ indicator receive deflection currents for

alphanumeric symbol production?

Back 368

AP.

Front 369

What is the difference between the symbols displayed on the AZ indicator relating to missile

guidance radar activity and missile launch conditions?

Back 369

For guidance activity the symbols are steady for a launch they flash.

Front 370

What does a cycle timer bar that has stopped for more than 3 seconds indicate?

Back 370

An AP fault.

Front 371

While performing an operational check you notice that the UNKNOWN legend is not on. Is this a

problem?

Back 371

Yes, it should be continuously illuminated

Front 372

What can you do to verify that missile launch audio is working?

Back 372

Depress the LAUNCH switch

Front 373

What two modes are selectable utilizing the MODE switch?

Back 373

OPEN and PRIORITY

Front 374

Upon system turn-on, is the OPEN or PRIORITY mode the default mode?

Back 374

OPEN.

Front 375

With the HANDOFF inhibited, what type of threat audio is heard?

Back 375

Threat audio is limited to new guy and missile launch audio

Front 376

What HANDOFF mode automatically encloses the highest displayed priority emitter symbol with

a diamond?

Back 376

Float handoff mode

Front 377

What mode is entered if the diamond legend is illuminated while you depress and immediately

release the HANDOFF switch?

Back 377

The latched mode.

Front 378

If either the float HANDOFF mode or latched mode were enabled, how would you return the

system back to normal mode?

Back 378

A long push on the HANDOFF switch (from either mode).

Front 379

How is the US MDT file activated?

Front 380

What occurs if the SYS TEST switch is depressed and held for longer than 1 second?

Back 380

The system status check display is initiated

Front 381

On the threat warning AUX panel, what is indicated by an illuminated POWER legend on the

ACT/PWR switch?

Back 381

The CDR voltages are within tolerance.

Front 382

What’s indicated on the threat warning AUX panel when the altitude switch LOW legend is

extinguished?

Back 382

The high-altitude threat priority file is in use.

Front 383

What’s enabled when the SEARCH switch is depressed for longer than 1 second during the status

check display?

Back 383

Maintenance status check.

Front 384

What is indicated by an illuminated SYSTEM POWER legend on the AUX panel POWER

switch?

Back 384

115 VAC is applied to the AP.

Front 385

When will I be displayed on the AZ indicator?

Back 385

During system initialization.

Front 386

During system initialization, if BIT detects a fault, how long could the I be displayed?

Back 386

Up to 6 minutes.

Front 387

What does the ALR–56M system use to indicate an auto self-test failure?

Back 387

An F appears in the center of the AZ indicator.

Front 388

How is a status check display initiated?

Back 388

Depressing SYS TEST for more than 1 second.

Front 389

What’s the second page that appears during status check display?

Back 389

OFP/MDT versions identification page.

Front 390

Upon completion of status check display, what would you expect to see if a system fault has

occurred?

Back 390

A status failure page.

Front 391

When would you perform a maintenance status check?

Back 391

To view and clear system faults

Front 392

How is a maintenance status check initiated?

Back 392

Depress and hold the SEARCH switch for more than 1 second within the first 5 seconds of the status check

display

Front 393

What occurs if you depress and hold the HANDOFF switch during a maintenance status check?

Back 393

The system is purged of fault information.

Front 394

Describe the purpose of the AP generated self-test signal that is sent to the DFRs

Back 394

To generate a baseband converted signal that is processed and returned to the AP for analysis purposes.

Front 395

What MUX buses are used by the ALR–56M for system intercommunication?

Back 395

Avionics B-MUX and EW-MUX.

Front 396

What systems provide data to the ALR–56M over the B-MUX?

Back 396

FCR, INS, CARA, and ACMI pod.

Front 397

Explain how the data supplied from the ALR–56M to the ALE–47 chaff/flare dispensing system

is used.

Back 397

To determine dispensing programs in both automatic and semiautomatic modes of operation.

Front 398

From what system(s) does the ALR–56M receive blanking inputs?

Back 398

TACAN, IFF, FCR.

Front 399

After being fed through the AIBU, where are blanking pulses from the TACAN and IFF systems

applied?

Back 399

To the CDR.

Front 400

When does the FCR provide blanking pulses to the AIBU?

Back 400

When operating in low or medium PRF modes only.

Front 401

What’s unique about ALR–56M blanking when the FCR is operating in high PRF?

Back 401

A blanking discrete signal is provided directly to the AP and is capable of requesting the FCR to blank via

the avionics MUX bus.

Front 402

To which ALR–56M components does the AP transmit tuning words?

Back 402

The CDR, DFRs, and SHC.

Front 403

The tuning words sent over the CD and DF links are used for what purpose?

Back 403

To define the specific low and high band frequencies used to tune the CDR and DFRs.

Front 404

Tuning words sent out over the APOUT link are used for what purpose?

Back 404

To define the SHC modes/parameters and define the specific frequency that the SHR local oscillator is

tuned.

Front 405

What is the purpose of the APIN link?

Back 405

To inform the AP of the operational status of the SHC.

Front 406

What ALR–56M component is responsible for the establishment of system dwell time?

Back 406

The AP.

Front 407

What component provides pulse descriptors to the AP over the VROUT link?

Back 407

The SHC.

Front 408

What do blanking signals, provided to the AP from other aircraft systems, ensure?

Back 408

That radiation from the transmitters will not create false data

Front 409

What voltage is used to turn on the AP power supply and from where is this voltage received?

Back 409

132 VDC; received from the CDR

Front 410

Where do the DFRs receive their DC operating voltages?

Back 410

The AP.

Front 411

Where are the DFR processed baseband RF signals sent?

Back 411

The SHR.

Front 412

Why do the DFRs use the SHR local oscillator signals?

Back 412

These signals are used in executing the down conversion process.

Front 413

For C/D band operation, what components comprise the three-stage superheterodyne receiver?

Back 413

The SHC, SHR, and CDR.

Front 414

How’s the SHC used by the ALR–56M system?

Back 414

To provide acquisition and characterization of incoming IF and video signals from the SHR and supply

descriptors to the AP for analysis.

Front 415

How does the SHC use the stored command and tuning words from the AP?

Back 415

To establish parameters and modes of operation for both the SHC and SHR.

Front 416

What is enabled by the tuning words supplied from the SHC to the SHR?

Back 416

The processing of incoming RF information from the DFRs and CDR into IF and video signals, according

to corresponding parameters and modes of operation established in the SHC by the AP.

Front 417

What are SHC descriptor words used to define?

Back 417

The direction, amplitude, frequency, pulse width, and time-of-arrival of the original RF signals detected by

aircraft antennas.

Front 418

What ALR–56M component supplies unconverted baseband RF to the SHC and why is this RF

used?

Back 418

The SHR; used to differentiate between detection of actual (true) or spurious (false) RF signals.

Front 419

What power is received by the SHC from the CDR and AP?

Back 419

DC power on the AUX PS2 (+15V) and 132V PS2 lines from the CDR and AC power on the 3 PHASE,

400HZ, AC POWER line from the AP.

Front 420

How does the SHC use the AP–provided AC power?

Back 420

To turn on three internal SHC fans, which expel hot air from the SHC chassis.

Front 421

For E–J band operation, what components constitute the three-stage superheterodyne receiver?

Back 421

The DFRs, SHR, and SHC.

Front 422

What is done by the DFRs to the incoming high band RF?

Back 422

The high band RF is down converted into baseband RF signals.

Front 423

What ALR–56M component supplies down conversion frequencies to the DFRs?

Back 423

The SHR.

Front 424

Once the DFR baseband conversion is complete, where are these signals sent?

Back 424

The SHR

Front 425

What does the SHR do with incoming baseband RF signals?

Back 425

Converts these signal into IF signals.

Front 426

Where does the SHR send the IF signals?

Back 426

The SHC

Front 427

What does the SHC determine from IF signals?

Back 427

The direction, amplitude, frequency pulse width, and time-of-arrival of the signals originally detected by

the DF antennas.

Front 428

What component supplies the SHR operating voltages?

Back 428

The SHC

Front 429

During dwell time, how does the CDR use the AP–provided data words?

Back 429

To process the C/D antenna-detected low band RF signals.

Front 430

To what component does the CDR send gain-adjusted low band RF?

Back 430

The SHR

Front 431

In the SEMI and AUTO modes, where does the CMDS receive threat data?

Back 431

From the ALR–56 over the multiplex bus

Front 432

How many programmable dispensing programs are available in CMDS manual mode?

Back 432

There are six programmable modes.

Front 433

What program is initiated when actuating the chaff/flare switch?

Back 433

Program 5, based on stored parameters in the programmer MDF

Front 434

The CCU provides electrical interface between what CMDS components?

Back 434

The chaff/flare switch, the CMS, and the safety switch assembly.

Front 435

What other CMDS components does the CCU communicate/provide outputs to and by what

means?

Back 435

The CCU communicates with the programmer over the CDL and provides and output to the safety switch

over the SDL.

Front 436

What four switches on the CCU are used to enable/inhibit the dispensing of expendables?

Back 436

CH, FL, O1, and O2.

Front 437

What CMDS component provides for system processing and communicates with other aircraft

system?

Back 437

The CMDS programmer

Front 438

What CMDS component provides CMDS BIT control, collects, stores, and reports detected

CMDS faults?

Back 438

The CMDS programmer

Front 439

What CMDS component performs payload inventory, monitors misfires and provides correction,

and accomplishes jettison and bypass functions?

Back 439

The sequencer switches.

Front 440

What is the primary purpose of the safety switch?

Back 440

To isolate primary power current from the CMDS firing circuits.

Front 441

The safety switch receives what types of dispense command signals and where are they sent?

Back 441

It receives program and bypass dispense command signals and outputs them to the sequencer assemblies.

Front 442

What are the four spring-loaded switches within the dispenser housing used to identify?

Back 442

These switches identify the type and location of expendables loaded in a dispenser.

Front 443

On the chaff/flare magazines there are four protrusions used for magazine identification, what is

the reason the fifth one is used?

Back 443

To indicate a magazine present condition to the CMDS.

Front 444

What dispense program is initiated when pressing the CMS switch forward?

Back 444

One of the manual programs, 1 through 4, is dispensed dependent upon CCU PGRM switch settings.

Front 445

In what direction would you press the CMS to dispense manual program 6?

Back 445

In-board.

Front 446

What CMS action provides SEMI mode dispense consent?

Back 446

Pressing the CMS aft

Front 447

In order to use AUTO mode a one-time consent must be given; how is this accomplished?

Back 447

By pressing the CMS aft.

Front 448

What CMS switch action disables AUTO mode?

Back 448

OUTBD (out-board).

Front 449

What are the CMDS messages provided by the VMU?

Back 449

CHAFF-FLARE, LOW, OUT, and COUNTER.

Front 450

In what CMDS mode would you expect to hear COUNTER?

Back 450

In SEMI mode.

Front 451

How many data entry displays are used to provide display and alteration of CMDS parameters?

Back 451

Five.

Front 452

Which mode overrides the OFF and STBY modes?

Back 452

Jettison

Front 453

What’s the purpose of the CHAFF/FLARE safety pin?

Back 453

To prevent inadvertent deployment of expendables during uploading, downloading, and normal ground

operations.

Front 454

How many manual dispense programs are incorporated into the ALE–47 system?

Back 454

Six.

Front 455

Operation of the CMDS in semiautomatic and automatic modes allows the programmer to receive

threat data from which system?

Back 455

ALR–56M system

Front 456

If in the semiautomatic mode, what message is heard (in the headset) when the CMDS determines

it’s time to dispense?

Back 456

COUNTER

Front 457

What voice message is heard when an expendable (chaff or flare) have all been dispensed?

Back 457

OUT

Front 458

What BIT runs at all times when the system is operational?

Back 458

Continuous BIT.

Front 459

What fires the cartridge causing the expendable to be dispensed?

Back 459

Squib.

Front 460

Define a dispense program

Back 460

A predetermined dispense response consisting of a specific quantity of payloads dispensed at specific

intervals for a specified period of time to provide countermeasures effective against an associated threat

type or category.

Front 461

Power–up self–test is initiated when the CCU MODE switch is positioned to which position?

Back 461

STBY.

Front 462

What is not a characteristic of a crystal video receiver (CVR)?

a. Sensitive.

b. Extremely fast.

c. A large component.

d. Covers a wide frequency range.

Back 462

C

Front 463

A superheterodyne radar warning receiver (RWR) uses a pre-selector filter, mixer, and local

oscillator to convert the received signal to a

a. transmit signal.

b. high band signal.

c. threat emitter symbol.

d. lower intermediate frequency.

Back 463

D

Front 464

What radar warning receiver (RWR) component rectifies the major disadvantage the

RWR’s scanning superheterodyne receiver has in its limited capability to receive signals from

threat systems employing scanning antenna patterns?

a. Azimuth indicator.

b. Amplifier detector.

c. Receiver controller.

d. C/D band antenna assembly.

Back 464

C

Front 465

What component is considered the heart of a radar warning receiver (RWR)?

a. Signal processor.

b. Azimuth indicator.

c. Receiver controller.

d. Superheterodyne receiver.

Back 465

A

Front 466

What radar warning receiver (RWR) component assembles a track file for each signal it

receives?

a. Signal processor.

b. Amplifier detector.

c. Superheterodyne receiver.

d. C/D band antenna assembly.

Back 466

A

Front 467

What emergency reprogramming action is taken if a real world threat appears that is not

part of the current emitter identification?

a. Pacer Ware.

b. Serene Byte.

c. Superheterodyne receiver reprogramming.

d. General avionics computer reprogramming

Back 467

A

Front 468

When track file characteristics match information in the emitter identification (EID) tables,

the signal processor generates and positions a video symbol on the

a. head-up display.

b. left mission data file.

c. radar warning receiver scope.

d. air combat maneuvering instrumentation.

Back 468

C

Front 469

C/D band threats fall into what band category?

a. 0.

b. 1.

c. 2.

d. 3.

Back 469

A

Front 470

The two E–J band forward antennas (forward equipment bay doors) and the two aft upper

E–J antennas (vertical tail) feed directly into

a. the FSRS receiver.

b. the FSRS controller.

c. the signal processor.

d. their associated amplifier-detector.

Back 470

D

Front 471

The radar threat warning systems (RTWS) menu rotaries are displayed on the

a. azimuth (AZ) indicator.

b. heads-up display (HUD).

c. countermeasures set control (CMSC) display window.

d. countermeasures signal processor (CMSP) display window.

Back 471

D

Front 472

Through the countermeasures signal processor (CMSP), radar threat warning systems

(RTWS) audio can be turned ON or OFF. Which other RTWS function ties in with the audio

function?

a. Fault display.

b. RTWS turn-off.

c. RTWS self-test activation.

d. Diamond symbol placement.

Back 472

D

Front 473

Which radar threat warning systems (RTWS) mode is used if displayed threat symbols

overlap or are superimposed?

a. SEP.

b. UNK.

c. OPEN.

d. PRIORITY.

Back 473

A

Front 474

Upon ALR–69 system time-in, what is displayed momentarily in the azimuth (AZ)

indicators center?

a. F.

b. OK.

c. GOOD.

d. READY.

Back 474

A

Front 475

The ALR–69 LAMP/AUDIO TEST and SUMMARIES make-up

a. system time-in.

b. the system self-test.

c. the maintenance test.

d. the system status test.

Back 475

B

Front 476

In the cockpit of the F–16, which switch is used to initiate a dispense program on the

AN/ALQ–213?

a. Dispense.

b. Jettison.

c. Elbow.

d. Bump.

Back 476

C

Front 477

On the ALQ–213 countermeasures system, what bus is used for communication between

the countermeasures signal processor (CMSP) and dispenser system sequencer switch

assemblies?

a. Countermeasures multiplex.

b. Early warning multiplex.

c. RS─422 serial bus.

d. RS─485 serial bus.

Back 477

D

Front 478

On the ALQ─213, lethal threat emitter signals are sent from the frequency selective

receiver system (FSRS) to the signal processor for evaluation over the

a. A-multiplex (MUX).

b. early warning MUX.

c. high speed data bus (HSDB).

d. real time data bus (RTDB).

Back 478

C

Front 479

When the 3 o’clock noise bar is not displayed on the azimuth indicator then excessive noise

is present in which band?

a. 0.

b. 1.

c. 2.

d. 3.

Back 479

D

Front 480

On the azimuth (AZ) indicator, a cycle time greater than 0.5 seconds may indicate

a. system time-in.

b. system self-test.

c. maintenance test.

d. system malfunction.

Back 480

D

Front 481

The ALR–56M system uses what type of data to update threat symbol position during

aircraft maneuvers?

a. Navigation data.

b. RF time tag data.

c. Time-of-arrival data.

d. Combined radar altimeter data.

Back 481

A

Front 482

What ALR–56M component determines missile guidance radar activity and launch

conditions for display on the azimuth indicator?

a. C/D band receiver/power supply.

b. Superheterodyne controller.

c. Superheterodyne receiver.

d. Analysis processor.

Back 482

D

Front 483

The controls and indicators that make up the ALR–56M system are the threat warning

prime panel, threat warning auxiliary panel, azimuth indicator, and

a. audio 1 control panel.

b. audio 2 control panel.

c. integrated control panel.

d. integrated keyboard panel.

Back 483

A

Front 484

What ALR–56M mode allows the operator to manually reposition the diamond symbol by

depressing and immediately releasing the HANDOFF switch?

a. UNK.

b. Latched.

c. TGT SEP.

d. Float handoff.

Back 484

B

Front 485

If you have the ALR–56M’s status check display active, you initiate a maintenance status

check by depressing and then releasing the

a. POWER switch for less than one second.

b. SEARCH switch for less than one second.

c. POWER switch for more than one second.

d. SEARCH switch for more than one second.

Back 485

D

Front 486

Power application to what ALR–56M component is indicated by an illuminated SYSTEM

POWER legend?

a. Analysis processor.

b. Superheterodyne receiver.

c. Superheterodyne controller.

d. C/D band receiver/power supply.

Back 486

A

Front 487

During ALR–56M system initialization, what does the azimuth indicator display first for

approximately three minutes?

a. F.

b. I.

c. US.

d. WO.

Back 487

B

Front 488

Which bus(es) is/are utilized by the ALR–56M system?

a. Early warning (EW)-multiplex (MUX).

b. A-MUX and EW-MUX.

c. B-MUX and EW-MUX.

d. D-MUX and EW-MUX.

Back 488

C

Front 489

Dependent upon operating conditions, what system provides a blanking discrete directly to

the ALR–56M analysis processor?

a. Fire control radar (FCR).

b. Ultra-high frequency (UHF).

c. Tactical air navigation (TACAN).

d. Identification, friend or foe (IFF).

Back 489

A

Front 490

What component supplies a 132 volts direct current (VDC) signal used to turn on the

analysis processor power supply?

a. Superheterodyne receiver (SHR).

b. Superheterodyne controller (SHC).

c. Threat warning auxiliary (AUX) panel.

d. C/D band receiver (CDR)/power supply.

Back 490

D

Front 491

Where are the ALR–56M direction-finding receiver (DFR) baseband signals sent once they

are processed?

a. Analysis processor (AP).

b. Superheterodyne receiver (SHR).

c. Superheterodyne controller (SHC).

d. C/D band receiver (CDR)/power supply.

Back 491

B

Front 492

What ALR–56M component provides all the required direct current (DC) operating

voltages for the superheterodyne receiver (SHR)?

a. Analysis processor (AP).

b. Superheterodyne controller (SHC).

c. Threat warning auxiliary (AUX) panel.

d. C/D band receiver (CDR)/power supply.

Back 492

B

Front 493

What ALR–56M component(s) provides power status signals to the analysis processor

(AP)?

a. Superheterodyne receiver (SHR).

b. Direction-finding receivers (DFR).

c. Superheterodyne controller (SHC).

d. C/D band receiver (CDR)/power supply

Back 493

D

Front 494

For the ALE–47 countermeasures dispensing set (CMDS), when actuating the chaff/flare

switch, what manual program is dispensed?

a. 3.

b. 4.

c. 5.

d. 6.

Back 494

C

Front 495

The cockpit control unit (CCU) provides the electrical interface between the chaff/flare

switch,

a. the countermeasures management switch (CMS), and the safety switch assembly.

b. the CMS, and the cockpit data link (CDL).

c. the data transfer unit (DTU), and CDL.

d. DTU, and the safety switch assembly.

Back 495

A

Front 496

For the ALE–47 countermeasures dispensing set (CMDS), how many different types of

expendables can be enabled for use?

a. 2.

b. 3.

c. 4.

d. 6.

Back 496

C

Front 497

What controls the quantity and interval of bursts and salvos for all expendables?

a. Cockpit control unit (CCU).

b. Sequencer switches.

c. Safety switch.

d. Programmer.

Back 497

D

Front 498

If the F–16 countermeasures dispensing set (CMDS) initiates a dispense program generated

from threat information received from the ALR–56M, then what mode of operation is selected?

a. Semi.

b. Jettison.

c. Manual.

d. Standby.

Back 498

A

Front 499

When the F–16 countermeasures dispensing set (CMDS) reaches Bingo (preset low

quantities) levels of expendables, then which audio indication will the pilot hear?

a. OUT.

b. LOW.

c. COUNTER.

d. CHAFF/FLARE.

Back 499

B