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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The most appropriate management for a
tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is A. observation over 6 months for further resorption. B. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. C. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. D. extraction, apical resection, retrofilling and replantation. E. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis. |
B. complete instrumentation and
medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. |
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Which of the following dental procedures
could be performed with minimal risk for a 35 year old patient with a severe bleeding disorder? A. Mandibular block anesthesia. B. Supragingival calculus removal. C. Incisional biopsy. D. Subgingival restoration. |
A. Mandibular block anesthesia.
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Which of the following cells are
characteristic of chronic inflammation of the dental pulp? 1. Plasma cells. 2. Macrophages. 3. Lymphocytes. 4. Neutrophils. |
1. Plasma cells.
2. Macrophages. 3. Lymphocytes. |
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An open proximal contact on an amalgam
restoration can be prevented by A. appropriate wedge selection. B. tightening the matrix band. C. light condensing forces. D. simultaneous placement of adjacent proximal restorations. |
A. appropriate wedge selection.
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Severe throbbing tooth pain which
increases when the patient lies down is a symptom of A. a pulp polyp. B. late stage of acute pulpitis. C. chronic pulpitis. D. chronic apical abscess. E. pulp hyperemia. |
B. late stage of acute pulpitis.
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Which of the following presents with high
serum calcium levels, thinning of cortical bone and giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw and drifting teeth? A. Hyperthyroidism. B. Hyperparathyroidism. C. Hypothyroidism. D. Hypoparathyroidism. |
B. Hyperparathyroidism.
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A patient experiences pain and some
gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration, is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester. There is some mobility. The most likely diagnosis is A. acute periradicular abscess. B. acute serous pulpitis. C. lateral periodontal abscess. D. acute suppurative pulpitis. E. chronic ulcerative pulpitis. |
C. lateral periodontal abscess.
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Which of the following factors improves
the prognosis for a successful direct pulp cap on a secondary tooth? A. Lack of hemorrhage at the exposure site. B. The more fibrotic the pulp, the better the prognosis. C. The exposure is uncontaminated. D. The decreased blood supply in an older patient. |
C. The exposure is uncontaminated.
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The appropriate management for an
avascular white lesion, 5 x 3mm in size, that has been present on the buccal mucosa for 6 months and has recently become ulcerated is A. observation. B. excisional biopsy. C. incisional biopsy. D. aspiration biopsy. E. cytologic examination. |
B. excisional biopsy.
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A patient experiences pain and some
gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration, is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester. There is some mobility. The most likely diagnosis is A. acute periradicular abscess. B. acute serous pulpitis. C. lateral periodontal abscess. D. acute suppurative pulpitis. E. chronic ulcerative pulpitis. |
C. lateral periodontal abscess.
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What is the most significant radiographic
finding in hyperparathyroidism? A. Demineralization of teeth. B. Multiple odontogenic keratocysts. C. Hypercementosis. D. Rampant caries. E. Generalized loss of lamina dura. |
E. Generalized loss of lamina dura.
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Amphetamines
A. increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue. B. have analgesic properties C. have no effect on psychomotor activity. D. are useful in controlling arrhythmias. |
A. increase mental alertness and
decrease fatigue. |
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Collagenase activity is inhibited by
A. clindamycin. B. tetracycline. C. penicillin. D. metronidazole. |
B. tetracycline.
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Which of the following indicates a failure
of a dental implant? A. Gingival inflammation. B. Horizontal bone loss of one third of the implant length. C. Mobility. D. Increased probing depths. |
C. Mobility.
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Which function is NOT affected if the
lingual nerve is anesthized distal to the anastomosis of the lingual and chorda tympani nerve? A. Swallowing. B. Salivary gland. C. Sensitivity of gingiva and tongue. D. Taste. |
A. Swallowing.
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A 50 year old patient presents for
extraction of an asymptomatic tooth. The preoperative blood pressure is 198/111 mmHg. The most appropriate treatment is to A. extract the tooth using a local anesthetic without epinephrine. B. extract the tooth using a local anesthetic with epinephrine. C. refer to a physician for preoperative evaluation. D. extract the tooth and refer to a physician. |
C. refer to a physician for preoperative
evaluation. |
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Which of the following side effects is
most likely to occur while using an epinephrine-impregnated retraction cord? A. Gingival hermorrhaging. B. Decreased respiratory rate. C. Hypotension. D. Tachycardia. |
D. Tachycardia.
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Voids in a gypsum cast are most likely the
result of A. low surface tension of a silicone impression material. B. high surface tension of an irreversible hydrocolloid. C. using a hydrophilized addition silicone. D. spraying a surfactant on the impression. |
B. high surface tension of an irreversible
hydrocolloid. |
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Correction of a bilateral posterior
constriction of the maxillary arch has the best long term prognosis for stability if: A. the maxillary posterior teeth are centered on the alveolar process. B. slow, fixed expansion quad-helix is used. C. there is no functional shift from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. D. there is a history of prolonged thumb-sucking. |
C. there is no functional shift from
initial contact to maximum intercuspation. |
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When a mandibular second molar that has
tipped mesially following extraction the adjacent first is uprighted by fixed orthodontic therapy (e.g. fixed appliance on 47, 45, 44 and 43) the following tooth movements usually occur: 1. extrusion of the second molar. 2. lingual tipping of the second molar. 3. intrusion of the anchor unit. 4. buccal tipping of the anchor unit |
E. All of the above.
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Epstein-Barr virus is accociated with
A. infectious mononucleosis. B. shingles. C. herpetic gingivostomatitis. D. rubeola. |
A. infectious mononucleosis.
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Enamel caries is associated with
A. certain strains of streptococci. B. certain strains of staphylococci. C. certain strains of actinomyces. D. certain strains of gram negative anerobic bacteria. |
A. certain strains of streptococci.
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Which of the following features would be
most indicative of a cracked tooth? A. Periapical radiolucency. B. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli. C. Pain upon biting pressure. D. No response to electric pulp testing. |
C. Pain upon biting pressure.
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The antibiotic of choice for infections of
pulpal origin is A. penicillin V. B. metronidazole. C. erythromycin. D. tetracycline. |
A. penicillin V.
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The appropriate management for a white
lesion, 10 x 15mm in size, that has been present on the buccal mucosa for 6 months and has recently become ulcerated is A. observation. B. excisional biopsy. C. incisional biopsy. D. aspiration biopsy. E. cytologic examination |
C. incisional biopsy.
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An anaphylactic reaction to penicillin is
most likely to occur 1. when the drug is administered parenterally. 2. in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug. 3. within minutes after drug administration. 4. when the drug is administered orally. 5. in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy. |
1. when the drug is administered
parenterally. 2. in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug. 3. within minutes after drug administration. |
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Side effects of therapeutic doses of
codeine can include 1. constipation. 2. drowsiness. 3. nausea. 4. respiratory depression. |
1. constipation.
2. drowsiness. 3. nausea. |
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How would you manage a percussion
sensitive tooth that responds normally to pulp testing? A. Pulpectomy. B. Occlusal assessment. C. Coronal pulpotomy. D. None of the above. |
B. Occlusal assessment.
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A patient has a draining sinus tract 6mm
apical to the free gingival margin of a maxillary lateral incisor. You would A. enucleate the sinus tract. B. test the tooth for percussion sensitivity. C. perform pulp vitality tests. D. open the tooth without anesthesia. E. open into the pulp chamber and establish the correct root length. |
D. open the tooth without anesthesia.
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For the bleaching of a discoloured and
devitalized tooth the most effective agent is A. sodium hypochlorite 5%. B. parachlorophenol. C. sodium bicarbonate. D. hydrogen peroxide 30%. |
D. hydrogen peroxide 30%.
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The pulpal floor of an occlusal amalgam
preparation on a mandibular first premolar should A. be 2mm into the dentin. B. slope apically from mesial to distal. C. be parallel to the buccolingual cusp plane. D. be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth. |
C. be parallel to the buccolingual cusp
plane. |
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After performing an apicoectomy, which
of the following should be placed in the bony defect prior to suturing the flap? A. Corticosteroids. B. Antibiotic powder. C. Oxidized cellulose. D. Bone wax. E. Nothing. |
E. Nothing.
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The mesiolingual groove is found on the
mandibular A. permanent second molar. B. permanent first molar. C. second premolar. D. first premolar. |
D. first premolar.
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Which of the following methods of cavity
preparation is most likely to cause damage to the pulp? A. Ultra high speed and water spray. B. Ultra high speed and no water spray. C. Conventional speed and no water spray. D. Conventional speed and water spray. |
B. Ultra high speed and no water spray.
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A patient complains of pain in a
mandibular molar when chewing hard foods and taking cold liquids. Electric pulp tests and radiographic appearance are normal. The pain is likely caused by A. acute apical periodontitis. B. chronic apical periodontitis. C. a cracked tooth. D. chronic pulpitis. |
C. a cracked tooth.
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A carious maxillary central incisor with
acute suppurative pulpitis requires A. immediate endodontics and apicectomy. B. incision and drainage. C. opening of the canal and drainage for one week. D. pulpotomy. |
B. incision and drainage.
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The material of choice for obturating the
root canal system of a primary tooth is A. silver cone. B. gutta percha. C. zinc-oxide eugenol. D. paper point medicated with formocresol. E. zinc oxyphosphate. |
C. zinc-oxide eugenol.
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Apicoectomy is CONTRAINDICATED
when A. periodontal disease causes inadequate bony support. B. there is a granuloma at the apex of the tooth. C. more than one tooth is involved. D. the cortical plate is more than 4mm thick. E. the patient is diabetic |
A. periodontal disease causes
inadequate bony support. |
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Hyperemia of the pulp is
A. an acute inflammation of the dental pulp characterized by intermittent paroxysms of pain which may become continuous. B. an excessive accumulation of blood in the pulp resulting in vascular congestion. C. a chronic situation whereby minute arterioles of pulpal tissue are engorged for long periods creating temporary episodes of pain. D. a transient invasion of bacterial elements into the outer lying stroma of the pulpal tissue. |
B. an excessive accumulation of blood
in the pulp resulting in vascular congestion. |
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Periodontal involvement is most likely to
develop when a Class II restoration has A. a flat marginal ridge. B. no proximal contact. C. deficient occlusal anatomy. D. been placed supragingivally |
B. no proximal contact.
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Cell rests of Malassez are thought to
originate from A. stellate reticulum. B. dental papilla. C. Hertwig's root sheath. D. stratum intermedium. |
C. Hertwig's root sheath.
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Following the removal of a vital pulp, the
root canal is medicated and sealed. The patient returns with apical periodontitis. The most common cause is A. overinstrumentation. B. lateral perforation. C. incorrect medication. D. pulp tissue left in the root canal. E. infection. |
A. overinstrumentation.
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Which of the following is the most
probable postoperative complication of intracoronal bleaching a tooth that has not been adequately obturated? A. Fracture. B. Discolouration. C. Retrograde pulpitis. D. Acute apical periodontitis. E. External cervical root resorption. |
D. Acute apical periodontitis.
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The joining together of two teeth in the
root portion through cemental union is known as A. gemination. B. fusion. C. twinning. D. concrescense. |
D. concrescense.
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After a thermal stimulus has been removed
from a tooth persistent pain suggests A. a normal pulp. B. pulp necrosis. C. reversible pulpitis. D. irreversible pulpitis. E. exposed cervical dentin. |
D. irreversible pulpitis.
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In endodontics, which of the following
perforations has the poorest prognosis? A. Furcation area of a molar. B. Apical to the epithelial attachment. C. Coronal to the epithelial attachment. D. Near the apex. |
A. Furcation area of a molar.
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Gutta-percha may be softened or dissolved
within the root canal by using A. alcohol. B. ethyl chloride. C. eugenol. D. xylene. |
D. xylene.
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A patient complains of the discolouration
of an upper central incisor. Radiographically, the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. The most appropriate treatment would be to A. perform root canal treatment and non vital bleaching. B. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. C. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. D. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. E. fabricate a porcelain veneer. |
E. fabricate a porcelain veneer.
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Radiographs of the mandibular incisor
teeth of a 45 year old healthy black female patient reveal periapical radiolucencies. The teeth are vital and asymptomatic. You would A. perform a biopsy of the radiolucent lesion. B. perform endodontic therapy on the four incisors. C. place a drain in the affected area. D. observe periodically. |
D. observe periodically.
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The masseter muscle originates from the
A. angle of the mandible. B. coronoid process. C. pterygoid fossa. D. zygomatic arch. |
D. zygomatic arch.
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