2010 Released Qs And Ans32

Front 1

The most common cause of a Class I
malocclusion is
A. discoordinate growth of the dental
arch.
B. insufficient tooth size.
C. inequity between tooth size and
supporting bone.
D. maxillary incisor crowding.
E. congenitally missing teeth.

Back 1

C. inequity between tooth size and
supporting bone

Front 2

A facebow is used to record the
1. vertical dimension of occlusion.
2. inter-occlusal relationship.
3. horizontal condylar inclination.
4. relationship of the maxilla to the
hinge axis.

Back 2

4. relationship of the maxilla to the
hinge axis.

Front 3

Highly filled, hybrid, posterior composite
resins are CONTRAINDICATED as a
posterior restorative material in cases of
1. cusp replacement.
2. bruxism.
3. lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface
margin.
4. inability to maintain a dry operating
field.

Back 3

E. All of the above.

Front 4

Which oral mucosa changes are possible
side effects of chemotherapy?
1. Atrophic thinning.
2. Ulceration.
3. Necrosis.
4. Spontaneous bleeding.

Back 4

E. All of the above.

Front 5

In which of the following situations could
fluoride supplements be recommended?
1. A 4 year old child with active caries.
2. A child with active caries living
where drinking water contains 0.7
ppm.
3. A 75 year old patient with active
caries who takes xerostomic
medications.
4. A 1 year old toddler living in a nonfluoridated
community.

Back 5

E. All of the above.

Front 6

The oral mucosa covering the base of the
alveolar bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying
muscle and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva
at the mucogingival junction.
E. has a tightly woven dense
collagenous corium.

Back 6

D. merges with the keratinized gingiva
at the mucogingival junction.

Front 7

Which of the following foods is the most
cariogenic?
A. Cheese.
B. Dark chocolate.
C. Jam.
D. Toffee.

Back 7

D. Toffee.

Front 8

The fluoride ion
1. is excreted rapidly by the kidney.
2. passes the placental barrier.
3. is deposited in teeth.
4. is deposited in bone.

Back 8

E. All of the above.

Front 9

Epidemiology of disease is best described
as the
A. data obtained from sickness surveys.
B. usual low level of disease normally
found within a population.
C. control of disease.
D. study of disease patterns in a
population.

Back 9

D. study of disease patterns in a
population.

Front 10

With the development of gingivitis, the
sulcus becomes predominantly populated
by
A. gram-positive organisms.
B. gram-negative organisms.
C. diplococcal organisms.
D. spirochetes.

Back 10

B. gram-negative organisms.

Front 11

The colour of normal gingiva is affected
by the
1. vascularity of the gingiva.
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation.

Back 11

E. All of the above.

Front 12

Which cells migrate into the gingival
sulcus in the largest numbers in response
to the accumulation of plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.

Back 12

B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

Front 13

Gingival crevicular fluid
A. never varies in volume.
B. is a transudate.
C. is derived from mast cells.
D. is an exudate.
E. B. and D.

Back 13

E. B. and D.

Front 14

After a tooth surface has been completely
cleaned, the new mucoprotein coating
which forms on the surface is called
A. pellicle.
B. plaque.
C. materia alba.
D. primary cuticle.
E. Nasmyth's membrane.

Back 14

A. pellicle.

Front 15

Maximum shrinkage after gingival
curettage can be expected from tissue that
is
A. fibroedematous.
B. edematous.
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.

Back 15

B. edematous.

Front 16

During tooth development, vitamin A
deficiency may result in
A. peg-shaped teeth.
B. partial anodontia (hypodontia).
C. Hutchinson's incisors.
D. enamel hypoplasia.
E. dentinogenesis imperfecta.

Back 16

D. enamel hypoplasia.

Front 17

Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result
in
A. abnormal formation of osteoid.
B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. Paget's disease.
D. myositis ossificans.
E. osteogenesis imperfecta.

Back 17

A. abnormal formation of osteoid.

Front 18

The periodontium is best able to tolerate
forces directed to a tooth
A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely.
D. vertically.

Back 18

D. vertically.

Front 19

Overhangs on restorations initiate chronic
inflammatory periodontal disease by
A. increasing plaque retention.
B. increasing food retention.
C. causing traumatic occlusion.
D. causing pressure atrophy.

Back 19

B. increasing food retention.

Front 20

Caries in older persons is most frequently
found on which of the following
locations?
A. Pits and fissures.
B. Proximal enamel.
C. Root surfaces.
D. Incisal dentin.

Back 20

C. Root surfaces.

Front 21

The predominant cells in the inflammatory
exudate of an acute periodontal abscess
are
A. neutrophils.
B. eosinophils.
C. basophils.
D. lymphocytes.
E. monocytes.

Back 21

A. neutrophils.

Front 22

Which treatment procedure is indicated for
a patient with asymptomatic age related
gingival recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
E. No treatment.

Back 22

E. No treatment.

Front 23

In patients with advanced periodontitis,
mobile teeth should be splinted in order to
A. reduce gingival inflammation.
B. accelerate epithelialization after
periodontal surgery.
C. enhance formation of a new
connective tissue attachment after
surgery.
D. None of the above.

Back 23

C. enhance formation of a new
connective tissue attachment after
surgery.

Front 24

Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate
craters in the interseptal bone are best
eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling.
D. bone grafting.

Back 24

A. osteoplasty.

Front 25

In a young patient living in an area with
communal water fluoridation, the fluoride
concentration of an erupted tooth is
greatest
A. at the dentino-enamel junction.
B. on the surface of the clinical crown.
C. at the layer of dentin nearest the pulp
chamber.
D. evenly throughout the enamel.

Back 25

C. at the layer of dentin nearest the pulp
chamber.

Front 26

Fluorides taken systemically are
1. excreted in the urine.
2. deposited in teeth only.
3. deposited in bone only.
4. deposited in the nails and teeth.

Back 26

1. excreted in the urine.
4. deposited in the nails and teeth.

Front 27

DMF-S is an index for expressing
A. dental needs.
B. tooth mortality.
C. extent of dental neglect.
D. dental caries.

Back 27

A. dental needs.

Front 28

A clenching habit may be a factor in
A. suprabony periodontal pocket
formation.
B. marginal gingivitis.
C. increased tooth mobility.
D. generalized recession.

Back 28

C. increased tooth mobility.

Front 29

Abrasion is most commonly seen on the
A. lingual surface of posterior teeth.
B. occlusal surface of posterior teeth.
C. incisal edges.
D. facial surfaces of teeth.

Back 29

D. facial surfaces of teeth.

Front 30

Carious lesions are most likely to develop
if a patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth.
D. lactic acid in his mouth.

Back 30

B. saliva with low buffering capacity.

Front 31

The most important objective of occlusal
adjustment of a natural dentition is to
A. prevent temporomandibular joint
syndrome.
B. increase the shearing action in
mastication.
C. improve oral hygiene by preventing
food impaction.
D. achieve a more favorable direction
and distribution of forces of
occlusion.

Back 31

D. achieve a more favorable direction
and distribution of forces of
occlusion.

Front 32

An increase of immunoglobulins is
consistent with increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells.

Back 32

D. plasma cells.

Front 33

In periodontics, the best prognosis for
bone regeneration follows the surgical
treatment of
A. suprabony pockets.
B. one-wall infrabony pockets.
C. two-wall infrabony pockets.
D. three-wall infrabony pockets.

Back 33

D. three-wall infrabony pockets.

Front 34

The most important diagnostic element in
assessing the periodontal status of a
patient is
A. the results of vitality testing.
B. the radiographic appearance.
C. the depth of periodontal pockets.
D. the mobility of the teeth.

Back 34

C. the depth of periodontal pockets.

Front 35

Crown-root ratio and residual bone
support can best be seen radiographically
in
A. a panoramic film.
B. a bite-wing film.
C. a periapical film - bisecting angle
technique.
D. a periapical film - paralleling
technique.

Back 35

D. a periapical film - paralleling
technique

Front 36

The absence of adequate drainage in a
periodontal pocket may result in
A. cyst formation.
B. abscess formation.
C. epithelial hyperplasia.
D. increased calculus formation.

Back 36

B. abscess formation.

Front 37

Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)
and acute herpetic gingivostomatitis can
be differentiated clinically by (the)
A. location of the lesions.
B. temperature of the patient.
C. pain.
D. lymphadenopathy.

Back 37

A. location of the lesions.

Front 38

The instrument best suited for root planing
is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette.
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.

Back 38

C. curette.

Front 39

Correction of an inadequate zone of
attached gingiva on several adjacent teeth
is best accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.

Back 39

E. free gingival graft.

Front 40

In comparing polysulfide, polyether and
addition cured silicone impression
materials, which of the following
statements is true?
A. All three of the materials contract
slightly during curing.
B. All the materials expand slightly
upon cooling from mouth
temperature (37 degrees C) to room
temperature (20 degrees C).
C. After one week, addition cured
silicones will undergo more
distortion than polysulfides.
D. Lead oxide is used as an activator in
silicones.

Back 40

A. All three of the materials contract
slightly during curing.

Front 41

In minimizing the firing shrinkage of
porcelain, the principal factor is the
A. fusion temperature.
B. ratio of flux to feldspar.
C. uniformity of particle size.
D. thoroughness of condensation.

Back 41

D. thoroughness of condensation.

Front 42

The higher modulus of elasticity of a
chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, compared
to a Type IV gold alloy, means that
chromium-cobalt-nickel partial denture
clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp
arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.

Back 42

D. a shallower undercut.

Front 43

Which of the following physical properties
would be least important for an
impression material for partially
edentulous patients?
A. Biocompatibility.
B. Dimensional stability.
C. Ease of manipulation.
D. Adhesion to calcium.
E. Elasticity.

Back 43

D. Adhesion to calcium.

Front 44

The addition of platinum to a dental gold
alloy results in increased
1. strength.
2. hardness.
3. melting point.
4. resistance to corrosion.

Back 44

E. All of the above.

Front 45

The main purpose of flux in soldering is to
A. dissolve surface oxides and prevent
further oxidation.
B. prevent recrystallization and grain
growth.
C. prevent oxidation and lower the
melting range of the solder.
D. dissolve surface oxides and lower the
melting range.

Back 45

A. dissolve surface oxides and prevent
further oxidation.

Front 46

During the setting phase, a dental stone
mixture will exhibit
A. expansion.
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.

Back 46

A. expansion.

Front 47

Zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are
A. less soluble than zinc phosphate
cements.
B. more soluble than zinc phosphate
cements.
C. as soluble as zinc phosphate cements.
D. less soluble than glass ionomer
cements.

Back 47

B. more soluble than zinc phosphate
cements.

Front 48

A removable partial denture is preferable
to a fixed bridge when the
A. edentulous areas are large.
B. abutment teeth have large undercuts.
C. abutment teeth are rotated.
D. residual ridges are severely resorbed.
E. abutment teeth are tipped.

Back 48

A. edentulous areas are large.

Front 49

In treatment planning for a removable
partial denture, a knife-edge bony ridge
will
A. make impression-taking difficult.
B. necessitate relief to the partial
denture.
C. cause difficulty in tooth selection.
D. None of the above.

Back 49

B. necessitate relief to the partial
denture.

Front 50

To ensure the greatest accuracy, rubber
base impressions should be poured
A. within 10 minutes.
B. within 1 hour.
C. within 8 hours.
D. after 24 hours.

Back 50

B. within 1 hour.