Was Appeasement Justified Essay

Appeasement can be explained as a policy that settles disputes between countries, it does so by allowing complaints and requests through from the opposing side and with reasonable negotiation and compromise they avoide armed conflict, which would be expensive, cause bloodshed and possibly dangerous to more and more countries. Five forms of appeasement happened in Germany in the 1930s. The first, was when Britain and France accepted the fact that Germany went through rearmament, this then breaking the Treaty of Versailles, also they signed the Anglo-German Agreement, which meant giving some of the British navy to the German navy. The second time appesement happend in Germany, was when no action was taken to help the remilitarisation of Rhineland, this breaking another rule of the Treaty of Versailles. The third, allowed Hitler to use German bombers in the Spanish Civil War. The fourth, when no action was taken over Anschluss. The final appeasement which has been disputed as the ‘worst’ gave Hitler Sudetenland in 1938. Since signing of the final appeasesment there has been many dispute among …show more content…
However, appeasement was not mainly justified because of the opportunities that had been shown that could have been able to help hinder Hitler’s plans, such as not allowing the remilitarisation of the Rhineland which led up to Hitler’s increase of aggressiveness and confidence, more time for Germany to prepare for war, and the powers that had been involved in the League losing the allies’ trust and exposing their weakness and naivety. The appeasement policies may have pacified Hitler for a small amount of time but as there gradually grew more and more, they only gave Hitler what he needed in order to help achieve his goal. Though