According to Kant universal law is “a maxim adopted from which, as well as from every end may one have, we here abstract altogether” (Gregor 1996, 283). What Kant means by this is, after we have willed something we then make it a universal law. He defines universal law as a maxim that we all have. Thus he is saying that after we will something, it becomes universal to all and everyone will do that same thing. When I lie to the homeless man about having money to give I am then making the universal law that lying is an acceptable act. Then as a result everyone in the world will lie because I have made it the universal law. But lying, just like any other action has consequences. Since I have lied to the homeless man and made lying an acceptable act. Then that means pharmaceutical companies can lie about the drugs that they make. A pharmaceutical company can lie and say that a drug they have made can treat and save a person from a life threatening condition if they take their drug. But really the pill the person takes is a sugar pill. As a result of that, a person who takes their pill with the hopes of having his life saved, will actually die due to the …show more content…
In the reading Foot says “Virtues, which I might express by saying they are corrective” (Foot 1978, 8). Then a few lines later she also says “there is a temptation to be resisted” (Foot 1978, 8). This very clearly shows that for Foot, for an act to be virtuous it must be done so that our own human temptations are resisted. She believes that’s they are corrective, meaning that they are there to correct us from following our own desires and wants. She is implying that if we do things that satisfy our natural human desires the act is not virtuous. Charity is a virtue because it requires us to give up something of our own for