Descartes restates this in the form of I am, I exist. However, for how long does this apply? Descartes explains that as long as one thinks, one exists. From this, Descartes reasons that he is nothing but a thinking thing. Nevertheless, first Descartes has to define what he is first before he can apply this definition to himself. Descartes realize that he must separate his body and his mind to continue this line of thinking. Also, he notes that he can no longer use his imagination in this line of questioning since he must explain the real. Moreover, Descartes reasons that since he is able to doubt his mental captivities, he must possess them in the first place. Yet, this does not apply to the senses and the imagination. As of now, corporeal thing, which are formed by thought, and which the senses, examine, are much more known to Descartes than the “I” in the …show more content…
If he cannot prove the existence of god, corporeal things not originating from himself cannot exist. Descartes notes that all tactile things are either a sensation or the inverse of that sensation. From this, Descartes decides that things like stones, or something with substance, are more suitable to exist. Descartes begins by stating if an object is known as “God” it would have to be infinite, independent, intelligent, and all powererful in order to create existence, if anything exists at all. Descartes reasons that he knows substance because he has substance. However, this cannot solely explain why he has an idea of an infinite substance. Descartes reasons that if he is able to understand both negative and positive sensations then he must be able to understand how a god would be infinite, since he is not. How, then, did Descartes receive this idea of god? Descartes realizes that this idea did originate not from him, so it must have come from God; therefore, God