Even if an argument were made to exculpate him, Oedipus should still be charged with the homicide of a king. However, he engaged in intercourse with his mother and killed his father not knowing who they were because they had valued their own lives over his. In the case where he was to be charged with just homicide/patricide, he had met Laius as a complete stranger, and the two quarreled over who should give way, which resulted in Oedipus killing the stranger and continuing on to Thebes. He had told Jocasta "...the one in the lead and the old man himself were about to thrust me off the road—brute force— and the one shouldering me aside, the driver, I strike him in anger!—and the old man, watching me coming up along his wheels—he brings down his prod, two prongs straight at my head! I paid him back with interest!" (Oedipus the King 206, 887-894). He had just heard of his foreboding prophecy and his life was in danger so he had acted under the influence of intense anxiety and fright …show more content…
Oedipus answered the monster's riddle correctly, defeating it and winning the throne of the dead king and the hand of the king's widow, his mother, Jocasta. He had won her fairly, and you, the people of Thebes had approved and furthermore, encouraged this. You can not insist that he committed incest without becoming hypocrites. He even deeply regretted bedding the wife of the man he killed, without knowing his relation as he said " And you, his wife, I've touched your body with these, the hands that killed your husband cover you with blood" (Oedipus the King 206, 907-909). The Gods had chosen Oedipus’ fate, and Oedipus struggled against the divinity of nature, Oedipus was not at fault, no mortal or immortal could have been at fault. He was not armed with enough information and power, though he had the right intentions. This situation clearly shows that Oedipus is to be acquitted of all charges. Please be considerate of your decision, I hope justice will